Sample Questions For Tech General 2


SPECIMEN QUESTIONNAIRE (Answers In the end)

TECHNICAL GENERAL

  1.  Fill in the blanks: –
  2.  For C of G considerations, the influence of weight is directly dependent on its distance from the __________________
  3.  Lever arm multiplied by the _________________ gives the moment about the fulcrum.
  4.  Ballast is usually located as far forward or as far backward as possible to bring the __________ within limits using ____________ amount of weight.
  5.  Jet fuels like Jet A or Jet A1 have very low ________________________ to ensure minimum loss of fuel due to evaporation or boiling off at higher altitudes.
  6.  In a jet engine, the component required to produce atomised spray of fuel is called a ______________________
  7.  The acceleration control unit prevents ____________________________ during rapid throttle movements.
  8.  A starting by-pass is a device to ______________________ the fuel flowing through the throttle valve to give better starting.
  9.  An after burner___________________ the velocity of the exit gases whereas a By‑pass system _________________ the velocity of the exit gases.
  10. Variable angle guide/stator vanes are used to match air angles to _________________ and avoid stalling conditions.
  11. The sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the amount of current required for ______________________ deflection.
  1. The property of a coil to oppose any change in the current flowing through it (cemf) is termed as __________________________
  1. The combined effect of resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance (total opposition to current flow) is termed as ________________________
  1. The factor which determines whether a transformer is step down or step up type is the ___________________________ ratio.
  1. DC generators could be either _______________ wound or ­­______________ wound.
  1. In a two-phase alternator, the voltages produced are at a phase difference of ________ degrees to each other.
  1. When resistors are connected in series, their resultant resistance is equal to the ______________ of their separate values.
  1. Capacitance (farads) is equal to _______________ divided by __________________
  1. A polyphased generator system is said to be _________________________ when phase voltages have the same amplitude and are displaced from one another by the same angles.
  1. Amplifiers increase the _______________ of electronic signals.
  1. Oscillators generate desired ______________
  1. Mixers combine signals of different _____________________
  1. Power supply is required to ______________ the entire system.
  1. Modulators superimpose ________________________ on radio waves.
  1. Detection ie. removing information from radio waves is done by ________________
  1. Transducers convert physical quantity (light, force, sound etc) into _______________ and vice versa.
  1. The distance between the transmitter and point of reception of the first sky wave is called _____________________
  1. The area between the limit of ground wave and the skip distance is called ____________________________
  1. Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) is required for reception of _______________ signals.
  1. In radar transmission, the PRF is determined by __________________ range at which targets are expected.
  1. In a pressure altimeter, pressure error is caused due to the ______________________
  1. When flying from an area of low-pressure to an area of high-pressure the pressure altimeter will read ______________________
  1. The sum total of static pressure and dynamic pressure is called __________________
  1. In a VSI, a blocked static would give _____________________________ indication.
  1. Mach number is True Air Speed divided by _________________________________
  1. The transmitter of a tachometer is essentially a _______________________________
  1. In a Wheatstone Bridge Circuit, the amount of galvanometer needle deflection is proportional to the change in _______________________________
  1. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of useful work to _________________________ from the burnt fuel, expressed in percentage.
  1. Swept Volume is the volume of cylinder swept by the piston from _______ to ______
  1. Thermal Efficiency is the ratio of useful work to the amount of __________________ from the fuel burnt.
  1. Thrust Horse Power is not solely dependent on the engine but is related to ___________________________________
  1. In a gas turbine engine the conversion of fuel energy to gas energy is most efficient between ______________% and ____________% Rpm.
  1. Two types of compressors used in jet engines are the _______________________ flow and ____________________ flow
  1. The vane passages in a diffuser are _____________________ to convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
  1. Adverse pressure gradient throughout the compressor in a single spool engine is overcome by designs such as the ___________________ compressor.
  1. Atomisers and vaporisers are two types of ________________________
  1. ___________________ and _________________ are two types of turbines
  1. Jet pipe nozzles could be convergent or _______________________
  1. Viscosity of a lubricating oil ___________________ with temperature
  1. Thrust reversal is a means of _____________________ the landing run of an aircraft
  1. The turbo fan engine is a _____________________ type of engine

State true or false: –

  1. The purpose of aircraft weight and balance is safety and has nothing to do with efficiency.
  1. The influence of weight is inversely proportional to its distance from the fulcrum
  1. Moment of a force is the product of the force multiplied by its arm
  1. Ballast, used to bring the C of G of an aircraft within limits, is usually placed as close to the C of G as possible
  1. Detonation is a condition that affects jet engines of the by-pass type.
  1. Water, foreign particles or microbial growth are common causes of fuel contamination
  1. The term ‘Aircraft Hardware’ is related to computers fitted on aircraft
  1. Electricity could be either static or dynamic
  1. Electrostatic field is also termed as dielectric field
  1. Potential difference and emf are the same thing
  1. The only factor affecting resistance of a conductor is its conductivity
  1. A battery composed of cells connected in series provides higher voltage than individual cells but not a greater current capacity
  1. Printing of the resistance value on the resistor body is a preferred method over colour coding
  1. Field strength of an electromagnet can be increased either by increasing the flow of current or the number of turns of the conductor.
  1. By design, fuses and circuit breakers are one and the same thing
  1. While capacitance in a circuit is represented by a capacitor, inductance is represented by a coil
  1. Rectification is the process of converting DC into AC
  1. Compound wound generators are a combination of series and shunt winding
  1. Any transverse partition in the fuselage which separates the two parts completely is termed as nacelle
  1. Camber is the curvature of a surface of an aerofoil.
  1. Wing spar is the principle spanwise structural wing member
  1. Rigging is the relative assembly checking and alignment of the aircraft
  1. Balance tabs fixed to the control surfaces are meant for maintaining the CG of an aircraft during turbulence
  1. Servo control is a control designed to assist the pilot’s effort.
  1. Strut is a structural member intended to resist compression in the direction of its length
  1. Ultimate strength is the point beyond which if stress is increased, the material will fail
  1. The constant pressure type of hydraulic system incorporates a mechanism that causes reduction in the amount of fluid delivered depending on the system pressure.
  1. The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid is of no consequence and could vary freely with temperature as long as the quantity of fluid is sufficient.
  1. Hydraulic fluid also acts as lubricant for the moving parts inside the system.
  1. As opposed to power assisted controls, power operated controls do not give any ‘Feel’ to the pilot and an artificial feel must be created.
  1. Wheel loading is the static load on each wheel at take-off weight
  1. The cocking device in a maxaret unit ensures that inadvertent locking of brakes in flight does not allow landing with wheels locked.
  1. Fibrous composites are made from fibres of various materials like glass, carbon or boron etc.
  1. Use of composite materials significantly increase the strength of a structure without affecting the weight.
  1. Stiffness and strength qualities of a fibrous material are exploited by aero-elastic tailoring
  1. With the static source in an Altimeter blocked, height changes will be over indicated.
  1. When flying from a warmer region to a colder region, the altimeter reading will not be affected.
  1. Density error in an ASI occurs due to the calibration of the ASI
  1. Readings on an ASI with blocked pitot tube will vary depending on climb, descent or level flight.
  1. In a VSI, compensation given for changes in pressure is called altitude compensation
  1. The mach meter incorporates two main elements one responsive to speed and one responsive to humidity.
  1. Accelerometers indicate acceleration in the vertical axis of an aircraft.
  1. Two main characteristics of a gyro are rigidity and speed
  1. Angular momentum is the product of instantaneous linear momentum and radius
  1. A rate gyro indicates rate of movement about the plane of rotation
  1. Erection and pendulosity errors in an artificial horizon are termed as turning errors
  1. The pacitor type of fuel gauge uses the property of relative permittivity and fuel density for measuring the fuel quantity.
  1. Knocking in a piston engine can occur either due to incorrect ignition timing or due to incorrect mixture.
  1. Fuel injectors differ fundamentally from float type carburettors in that the airflow to the engine is not measured by a venturi
  1. The object of oil dilution is to facilitate the starting of piston engines in cold weather.
  1. Feathering is a procedure by which propeller blades can be turned until the blade chord lines are almost parallel to the airflow.
  1. Barking propellers incorporate reversible pitch
  1. Aperiodicity in a magnetic compass indicates no recurring oscillations
  1. While conducting a compass swing, the correcting swing can be repeated several times to achieve the required accuracy
  1. During a spin, the turn indicator always indicates the correct rate and direction of yaw.
  2. The term ‘gyro drift’ describes any movement of the gyro spin axis away from its datum direction.
  1. Sky waves denote wave propagation received after reflection from the ionosphere.
  1. Space waves travel after multiple reflections between the earth and the ionosphere
  1. The effect of the ionosphere on wave propagation does not depend on the frequency
  1. One of the main uses of the oscillator is to generate RF for transmission
  1. Modulation implies superimposition of intelligence signal on the RF
  1. Detection is another name used to denote modulation
  1. Communications in the band of frequencies between 3to 30 MHz employs ground wave propagation
  1. Though not intermittent like in the piston engine, the gas turbine engine too goes through the processes of induction, compression, ignition, expansion and exhaust cycles
  1. The impulse turbine transfers energy of the gas flow to the turbine wheel by an impulse or impact
  1. A high velocity gas flow ensures smaller turbine diameter, hence lower weight and engine size
  1. The term ‘Creep’ denotes elongation of turbine blades under tensile loads due to continued exposure to thermal stresses over a considerable period of time
  1. The main function of a combustion chamber is to burn a mixture of air and fuel, without any regard to pressure and temperature
  1. Flame extinction can occur due to weak mixture but never due to rich mixture.
  1. HP cocks cut off fuel to the burners ie after the HP fuel pump whereas the LP cocks cut off the fuel to the fuel pump itself
  1. Stress is the force that tends to compress a structure
  1. When stress exceeds the elastic limit, without exceeding the ultimate strength, the material will return to its original state on release of the load
  1. Shear load is one that tends to break away a material by pulling action along its longitudinal axis
  1. ‘Spring Bias’ and ‘Variable incidence Tail’ are methods of trimming
  1. A high wheel loading would require a low LCN runway

Tick the correct answer(s)

  1. While designing aircraft, working drawings must contain data regarding

(a) Size and shape

(b) Material to be used

(c) How the parts are to be assembled

  1. Improper loading of an aircraft with regards to C of G reduces the efficiency with respect to

(a) Fuel consumption

(b) Manoeuvrability

(c) Ceiling

  1. Aircraft need periodic re-weighing as they tend to accumulate dirt, grease etc. The weight gained will depend on

(a) Hours of flight

(b) Atmospheric conditions

(c) Food consumed aboard

  1. Mean aerodynamic chord is the

(a) Mean average chord of the wing

(b) Line joining leading edge to trailing edge

(c) Line joining tip to root of wing

  1. The weight and balance extreme position of an aircraft denotes

(a) Max forward and rearward CG position

(b) Max number of passengers that can be carried

(c) Position of baggage hold in the aircraft

  1. Octane and performance number rating of fuels designate

(a) Antiknock values of the fuel mixture in an engine cylinder

(b) Energy content of the fuel

(c) Means of identifying the fuel

  1. Aromatic hydrocarbons are added to fuels to

(a) To improve its appeal amongst consumers

(b) To improve the rich mixture performance rating of the fuel

(c) To dilute the fuel for reducing viscosity in cold temperature

  1. Fuel jettison system is required for transport category of aircraft

(a) If max take-off weight exceeds max landing weight

(b) If max landing weight exceeds max take-off weight

(c) For negotiating bad weather in flight

  1. Bolts are preferred to screws for fastening when

(a) When fastening strength required is more

(b) When there is no access for placing a nut

(c) When the body, of the material being fitted, cannot accept the screw

  1. A turnbuckle assembly is used in conjunction with

(a) Cables

(b) Seat belts

(c) Torque meters

  1. The single factor for determining the class of lever is

(a) The location of the fulcrum in relation to the resistance and the effort

(b) The material used to make the lever

(c) The machine in which it is used

  1. The inclined plane is a simple machine that operates

(a) By application of a small force over a relatively long distance

(b) For deriving mechanical advantage for lifting heavy objects

(c) Just like the wedge, ie the wedge is an application of the inclined plane

  1. All machines transfer

(a) Input energy to the machine to output energy by the machine

(b) Work done on the machine to work done by the machine

(c) Mechanical advantage to the work

  1. Ohm’s law may be expressed as an equation as following: –

(a) I = E/R

(b) E = R/E

(c) R = E/I

where I is the current E is the Potential Difference and R is the resistance

  1. Requirements for a parallel circuit are

(a) Power source

(b) Resistance or load for each current path

(c) Two or more paths for current flow

(d) All of the above

  1. In an electrical circuit, a low resistance path across the power source or between the sides of a circuit is termed as

(a) Short circuit

(b) Open circuit

(c) Continuity

(d) Discontinuity

  1. The value of an induced emf depends on

(a) The number of wires moving through the magnetic field

(b) The strength of the magnetic field

(c) The speed of rotation

  1. The unit for the measurement of impedance is

(a) Volt

(b) Ohm

(c) Watt

  1. A transformer changes

(a) Power

(b) Voltage

(c) Inductance

  1. A transistor performs the functions of a

(a) Diode

(b) Vacuum tube

(c) Cathode Ray Tube

  1. A converter is

(a) DC generator and AC motor combined

(b) DC motor

(c) An equipment to convert DC to AC

  1. A solid state diode is manufactured from

(a) Semiconductors

(b) Lead plates

(c) Selenium

  1. Examples of compressor less jets are

(a) Intermittent pulse duct

(b) Ram jet or ATHODYD

(c) By-pass duct engine

  1. Basic requirements of a turbine engine are that it should have

(a) Light weight & small frontal area

(b) High efficiency, reliability and serviceability

(c) Ability to operate at high temperature/ power for sustained periods

  1. Types of combustion chambers used in jet engines are

(a) Multiple chambers arranged around the circumference of the engine body

(b) Single annular chamber

(c) Twin spool type

  1. Lubbock, simplex, duplex and spill are types of

(a) Torch ignitors

(b) Burners

(c) Atomisers

  1. The minimum burner pressure valve in the fuel system prevents flame extinction

(a) At high altitude, idling rpm

(b) At low altitude, idling rpm

(c) At any altitude, full rpm

  1. The use of reheat results in

(a) Shorter take-off roll

(b) Improved rate of climb

(c) Lower specific fuel consumption

  1. A ducted fan engine, as compared to turbo jet engine, has

(a) Increased propulsive efficiency

(b) Reduced mean speed of the exhaust gases

(c) Increased total mass flow

  1. Some advantages of the turbo prop over the turbo jet are

(a) Power available is independent of the forward speed of the aircraft, more power is available during the initial stages of the take-off run

(b) The engine is more efficient at high altitudes

(c) Power response to throttle movement is more rapid

  1. Engine anti-icing equipment may be switched on if the following is encountered in icing conditions

(a) Suspected icing

(b) Rise in jpt or drop in rpm

(c) Smoke from engine

  1. Flame extinction may be caused by

(a) Over/ under fuelling

(b) Interruption of fuel flow

(c) Excessive/Insufficient idling speed

  1. Wing design for supersonic speeds are difficult because of the requirement of

(a) Small thickness/chord ratio of 6% or less

(b) The heating effect of supersonic flights

(c) Excessive sweep back

  1. Basic requirements of an airframe are

(a) Sufficient strength

(b) Smooth skin of the required aerodynamic form

(c) Easy to dismantle for servicing

  1. For a given transmission power, as compared to distance over land, radio waves will travel over sea for a

(a) Longer distance

(b) Shorter distance

(c) Same distance

  1. Higher the frequency, the attenuation is

(a) Greater

(b) Lesser

(c) No change

  1. At lower frequencies, static is

(a) Severe

(b) Negligible

(c) Nil

  1. Range available from sky waves is dependent on

(a) Transmission power

(b) Depth of penetration

(c) Critical angle

  1. Frequencies above 30 MHz (VHF & above)

(a) Return as sky waves

(b) Escape into space

(c) Travel by multi-hop propagation

  1. The following rules apply for the use of SELCAL

(a) The appropriate ATC must be informed

(b) The ATC should not object

(c) Other aircraft should not object

  1. 180o ambiguity in NDB is resolved by the use of

(a) Sense aerial

(b) Loop aerial

(c) Combination of sense and loop aerial

  1. NDB operates in the

(a) LF/ MF band

(b) HF/VHF band

(c) UHF band

  1. To protect two NDBs operating at close frequencies from interfering with each other, it is required to limit their range. This requirement is called

(a) Range Limit

(b) Frequency protection

(c) Protection range

  1. Range produced by an A2 transmission, as compared to that produced by an A1 transmission is

(a) Lesser

(b) More

(c) No change

  1. The principle of operation of the VOR

(a) Bearing by range comparison

(b) Bearing by phase comparison

(c) Bearing by frequency comparison

  1. A VOR aerial accepts

(a) VOR signals alone

(b) VOR, ILS and VHF signals

(c) VOR and ILS-localiser signals

  1. The OBS knob on the VOR is used to select

(a) True track required

(b) Magnetic track required

(c) Magnetic track required or reciprocal of it

  1. In the event of a main system failure of the VOR ground equipment, when it is switched off, the standby transmitter then takes over. Ident signals onthe standby system are transmitted

(a) Immediately

(b) After 5 minutes

(c) After radiation stabilises

  1. In theory, the VOR gives

(a) Infinite number of tracks

(b) 360 tracks numbered in degrees

(c) Tracks on cardinal headings

  1. Left/ Right indications in a VOR

(a) Points towards the beacon

(b) Points towards the ATC

(c) Gives relative position information

  1. RMI

(a) Is a useful independent navigation aid

(b) Is only an indicator

(c) Indicates QDM in conjunction with ADF receiver/ VOR

  1. Bearings are classified according to accuracy, hence a class A bearing would mean an accuracy of

(a) + 20

(b) + 50

(c) +100

  1. Fan markers operate on

(a) Multiple frequencies

(b) Any one frequency depending on the station selection

(c) Fixed frequency of 75 MHz

  1. Consol is a

(a) Long range navigation aid operating in the MF band

(b) Communication equipment

(c) Mounting panel for nav equipment in the cockpit

  1. ILS indicator is

(a) VOR left/ right deviation indicator, with an additional horizontal needle

(b) Two separate indicators indicating glide path/ localiser information

(c) A blue sector indicator and a yellow sector indicator

  1. Cat III ILS is capable of providing accurate guidance

(a) To a height of 200 ft above the reference point

(b) To a height of 50 ft above the reference point

(c) To the surface of the runway

  1. An Aircraft certificated to Cat IIIB ILS equipment on board can operate

(a) Down to surface of the runway with RVR 200 metres

(b) Down to the surface of the runway and taxiways with RVR 50 metres

(c) Down to the surface of the runway and taxiways without visual reference

  1. Primary Radar is

(a) Self contained and needs no external assistance

(b) Needs an interrogator

(c) Is the same as secondary radar except for its utilisation

  1. The DME works on the principle of the

(a) Secondary Radar

(b) Primary Radar

(c) Non of the above

  1. Some advantages of the CW Radar are

(a) The system is less complex than pulse Radar system

(b) It has no minimum range limitations in azimuth or in elevation

(c) Because it operates in the same frequency as the transmission it is free of clutter

  1. A DME incorporates

(a) A loop antenna

(b) A sense antenna and a loop antenna

(c) An omni-directional blade antenna

  1. Ranges indicated by DME are

(a) Accurate horizontal distances

(b) Slant ranges requiring computation for conversion to horizontal range

(c) Slant ranges converted by the use of pythagoras

  1. The ASR is a primary Radar wherein

(a) Range is found by echo principle

(b) Range is found by searchlight principle

(c) Direction is found by searchlight principle

  1. Range in VHF transmission is dependent on

(a) Height of transmitter and receiver

(b) Transmission power

(c) Both of the above

  1. VOT is a transmitter for testing the airborne equipment of the VOR. When using this, the dial indications obtained for a serviceable equipment should be

(a) 000 From and 180 To

(b) 180 To and 000 From

(c) None of the above

  1. High-energy ignition units in jet engines, as compared to torch ignitors, supply

(a) Hotter spark

(b) Cooler spark

(c) Has no bearing on spark temperature

  1. The Air-Fuel Ratio Control unit is designed to

(a) Keep fuel delivery to the burners proportional to the compressor pressure

(b) Prevent surge during acceleration

(c) Prevent rich mixture flame extinction

  1. Jet pipe lagging is used to

(a) Cool the engine

(b) Prevent heat leak

(c) Safeguard against fire

  1. When an aircraft is stationary it propulsive efficiency is

(a) Zero

(b) 100%

(c) Depends on throttle settings

  1. When water methanol is used for thrust augmentation, the ratio of water to methanol used is

(a) 40% : 60%

(b) 60% : 40%

(c) 50% : 50%

  1. Tachometers are devices used to measure

(a) TAS

(b) RPM

(c) Pressure

  1. In a JPT indicator employing principle of thermocouple, the cold junction is usually

(a) At the base of the thermocouple

(b) In the Jet Pipe

(c) In the instrument indicator

  1. JPT indicators would essentially need an amplifier as

(a) The temperature range to be read is very large

(b) The temperature pick-up and indicator are placed far apart

(c) Thermocouples generate microvolts of electrical energy

  1. Machmeters indicate

(a) Ratio of TAS to local speed of sound

(b) Local speed of sound

(c) Ratio of IAS to local speed of sound

  1. In an ASI, the magnitude of pressure error depends on

(a) Aircraft speed & position of static vent

(b) Type of manoeuvre & angle of attack

(c) both of the above

 

TECHNICAL:GENERAL – ANSWERS

Fill in the blanks

  1. Fulcrum
  2. Weight
  3. CG, minimum
  4. Vapour pressure
  5. Burner
  6. Excessive overfuelling
  7. Supplement
  8. Increases, decreases
  9. Rotor speed
  10. Full scale
  11. Inductance
  12. Impedance
  13. Turns
  14. Series, shunt
  15. 900
  16. Sum
  17. Charge (coulomb)
  18. Symmetrical
  19. Amplitude
  20. Wave form/ Signal frequencies
  21. Frequencies
  22. Energise
  23. Information
  24. Demodulators
  25. Electrical signals
  26. Skip distance
  27. Dead space
  28. CW
  29. Maximum
  30. Position of static source
  31. Less
  32. Pitot pressure
  33. zero
  34. Local speed of sound
  35. 3-phase AC generator
  36. Resistance
  37. TDC
  38. TDC to BDC
  39. Heat supplied
  40. Propeller efficiency
  41. 90% to 100%
  42. Centrifugal and axial
  43. Divergent
  44. Multi-Spool
  45. Burners
  46. Reaction and impulse
  47. Convergent, divergent
  48. Reduces
  49. Reducing
  50. By-pass


State True or False

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False
  6. True
  7. False
  8. True
  9. True
  10. True
  11. False
  12. True
  13. False
  14. True
  15. False
  16. True
  17. True
  18. True
  19. False
  20. True
  21. True
  22. True
  23. False
  24. True
  25. True
  26. True
  27. True
  28. False
  29. True
  30. True
  31. True
  32. True
  33. True
  34. False
  35. True
  36. False
  37. False
  38. True
  39. True
  40. True
  41. False
  42. True
  43. False
  44. True
  45. False
  46. True
  47. True
  48. True
  49. True
  50. True
  51. True
  52. True
  53. True
  54. True
  55. False
  56. True
  57. True
  58. False
  59. False
  60. True
  61. True
  62. False
  63. False
  64. True
  65. True
  66. True
  67. True
  68. False
  69. False
  70. True
  71. False
  72. False
  73. False
  74. True
  75. False

Tick the correct answers

  1. a,b
  1. ,c
  2. a,b,c
  3. a,b
  4. a
  5. a
  6. a
  7. b
  8. a
  9. a
  10. a
  11. a
  12. a,b,c
  13. a,b
  14. a
  15. d
  16. a
  17. a,b,c
  18. b
  19. b
  20. b
  21. a
  22. a
  23. a,b
  24. a,b,c
  25. a,b
  26. b
  27. a
  28. a,b
  29. a,b,c
  30. a,c
  31. a,b
  32. a,b
  33. a,b
  34. a,b
  35. a
  36. a
  37. a,b,c
  38. b
  39. a,b
  40. a
  41. a
  42. c
  43. a
  44. b
  45. c
  46. c
  47. c
  48. a
  49. c
  50. b,c
  51. a
  52. c
  53. a
  54. a
  55. c
  56. b
  57. a
  58. a
  59. a,b
  60. c
  61. b,c
  62. a,c
  63. a
  64. a
  65. a
  66. a,b,c
  67. b,c
  68. a
  69. b
  70. b
  71. c
  72. c
  73. a
  74. c

 

 

 

 

 


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