ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions(3)


ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions(3)

 

THE EARTH

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true of a great circle?

a) It is the path radio waves that travel over the Earth

b) The smaller arc of it represents the shortest distance between two points on the Earth

c) Its plane passes through the center of the Earth

d) All of these

  1. Which of the following statements is false of a small circle?

a) A radio wave never follows a small circle path

b) The smaller arc of it does not represent the shortest distance between two points on the Earth

c) Its plane does not pass through the center of the Earth

d) All lines of latitude are small circles

 

  1. The latitude of a place is its angular distance:

a) N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 180◦ N/S

b) E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 90◦ E/W

c) N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 90◦ N/S

d) E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 180◦ E/W

 

  1. The dlat and dlong between A (64◦33’S 120◦36’W) and B (10◦27’N 113◦24’E) is:

dlat                dlong

a)          75◦00’        126◦00’

b)          54◦06’          07◦12’

c)          75◦00’          07◦12’

d)          54◦06’         126◦00’

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false about a rhumb line?
  1. a) It is a line of constant direction on the Earth’s surface
  2. b) All lines of latitude Rhumb lines but not great circles
  3. c) All meridians are Rhumb lines and semi great circles
  4. d) If the Rhumb line bearing of A from B is 090◦(T), the Rhumb line bearing of B from A is 270◦(T)

 

  1. Which of the following statements about Earth convergency is false?

a) It is the angle that any two meridians converge on the Earth

b) It is the angle that a great circle bearing changes as it passes across two meridians

c) The angle of Earth convergency between meridians at the Equator is dlong

d) The angle between two meridians at the pole is dlong

 

7.   The formula for Earth conversion angle is:

a) 2 x Earth Convergency

b) ½ dlong x sine Mean Latitude

c) dlong x sine Mean Latitude

d) dlong x cosine Mean Latitude

 

  1. Which of the following statements about departure is false?

a) It is measured in nautical miles

b) It is the distance E/W between two meridians

c) Its formula is dlong x sine lat

d) Its value at the Equator is dlong converted to minutes of arc

 

  1. C is in the same hemisphere as D. The Great Circle bearing of D from C is 044◦(T) and of C from D is 220◦(T). The hemisphere of C and D, and the Rhumb line track from C to D are:

Hemisphere             Rhumb Line C to D

a) Northern                      040◦

b) Southern                042◦

c) Southern                    044◦

d) Northern                   046◦

 

  1. The Great Circle track from A (20◦00’N 10◦00’W) to B (40◦00’N 175◦00’E) is 060◦(T). The Great Circle track from A to B is:

a) 240◦(T)

b) 245◦(T)

c) 250◦(T)

d) 230◦(T)

 

  1. Calculate the convergency of meridians between 30◦North 175◦East and 30◦North 165◦West to the nearest whole degree

a) 5◦

b) 10◦

c) 17◦

d) 9◦

 

  1. A is at 5500N 15100W and B at 5500N 16253W. what is departure?

a) 584 NM

b) 397 NM

c) 567 NM

d) 409 NM

 

  1. Consider the following statement on the shape of the Earth:

a) The diameter of the Earth is the same at all latitudes

b) The longest diameter is between the poles

c) It is slightly flattened at the poles

d) The diameter at the Equator is about 60 NM longer than the diameter between poles

 

  1. Consider the following statement on the longitude:

a) Longitude is stated in degrees upto 360◦

b) The value of longitude will never exceed 90◦

c) The largest value of longitude is 180◦

d) The largest value of change of longitude is 90◦

ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

DIRECTIONS, MAGNETISM AND SPEED

  1. Directions are stated:

a) As a reference direction and a number of degrees

b) In degrees with reference to True North when plotted with reference to the latitude/longitude grid on a chart

c) In degrees in a 360◦ system, starting out clockwise from the reference direction

d) All 3 answers are correct

 

  1. The angular difference between Compass North and Magnetic North is:

a) Variation

b) Deviation

c) Inclination

d) Magnetic Correction

 

  1. The angular difference between the geographical meridian and magnetic meridian running through the same position is:

a) Variation

b) Deviation

c) Inclination

d) Magnetic Correction

 

  1. Given Variation 6◦E, Deviation 4◦W, Heading 136◦True. What is the compass heading?

a) 130

b) 138

c) 134

d) 126

 

  1. Variation in a position is 13◦W, and True track is 136◦. Consider the following statements:

a) The compass track is 149◦

b) The magnetic track is 149◦

c) Looking North from this position, ther Magnetic North pole seems to be locatedto the east of the true north pole

d) The position most likely is located at northern latitudes and on eastern latitudes

 

  1. In the areas close to the magnetic poles, magnetic compasses are not to any use in air navigation, mainly because:

a) The field strength of the Earth’s magnetic field is at it’s weakest in this area

b) The distance from the Magnetic Equator is too long

c) The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field is too weak

d) The inclination is insufficient in these areas

 

  1. The red end of a direct reading compass needle will point:

a) North and upwards in the northern hemisphere

b) North and upwards in the southern hemisphere

c) South and downwards in the southern hemisphere

d) South and upwards in the southern hemisphere

 

  1. Dip is the angle between:

a) The H and Z components measured from the vertical

b) The Z component and the earth’s magnetic field measured upwards

c) The H and Z components measured from the horizontal

d) The H component and the earth’s magnetic field measured from the horizontal

 

  1. True Heading is 355◦(T), Variation is 12◦W, Compass Heading is 002◦(C). The magnetic heading of the aircraft is ——- and the deviation is ———

a) 343◦(M)    7◦W

b) 343◦(M)    19◦E

c) 007◦(M)    5◦W

d) 007◦(M)  5◦E

 

  1. Compass Heading is 237◦(C), magnetic heading is 241◦(M) with the variation 12◦W:

a) Deviation is 4◦W and True North is east of Compass North

b) Deviation is 4◦E and Compass North is west of True North

c) Deviation is 4◦W and Magnetic North is east of Compass North

d) Deviation is 4◦E and True North is west of Compass North

 

THE TRIANGLE OF VELOCITIES

 

  1. Consider the following statements:

a) The exact length of a 1’ of arc is longer at high altitude than at sea level, when the arc is observed from the centre of the Earth

b) In any position on the surface of the Earth, the length of 1’ of arc East/West is equal to the length of 1’ of arc North/South in the same position on a perfect sphere

c) The exact length of a 1’ of arc varies a little from position to position because the Earth radius vary

d) All 3 statements are correct

 

  1. Given True course 300◦, Drift 8◦R, Variation 10◦W, Deviation -4◦. Calculate compass heading?

a) 306◦

b) 322◦

c) 294◦

d) 278◦

 

  1. 1 Nautical Mile equals:

a) 1855 metres

b) 6076 feet

c) 0.869 Statute Mile

d) 3281 Yards

 

  1. Given Drift angle 4◦R, Magnetic Variation 8◦W, Magnetic Heading 060◦. What is the true track?

a) 072◦

b) 064◦

c) 048◦

d) 056◦

 

  1. 265 US-GAL equals: (Specific gravity 0.80)

a) 862 kg

b) 895 kg

c) 940 kg

d) 803 kg

 

  1. Kilometre is defined as:

 a) The mean length of a 1/40000 part of the Equator

b) A 1/10000 part of the meridian length from Equator to the pole

c) 0.621 Statute Mile

d) 0.454 Nautical Mile

  1. Construct the triangle of velocities showing the following data: TH 305◦, TAS 135 kt W/V 230/40, Period of time from 1130 to 1145. What is the track in this period of time?

a) 310◦

b) 290◦

c) 322◦

d) 316◦

 

  1. Given TAS 110 kt, True heading 020◦, Actual wind 330◦(T)/36 kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS.

a) 15◦ Left – 97 kt

b) 15◦ Right – 97 kt

c) 17◦ Right – 91 kt

d) 17◦ Left – 91 kt

 

  1. Construct the triangle of velocities showing the following data: TH 305◦, TAS 135 kt W/V 230/40, Period of time from 1130 to 1145. What is the GS in this period of time?

 a) 130 kt

b) 135 kt

c) 145 kt

d) 97 kt

 

  1. Flying on a true heading of 207◦, TAS is 158 kt, W/V is 310/25. Calculate true track.

a) 190◦

b) 215◦

c) 207◦

d) 198◦

 

  1. Given TAS 290 kt, True heading 070◦, Actual wind 010◦(T)/40 kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS.

a) Drift angle 8◦ Left, GS 273 kt

b) Drift angle 7◦ Right, GS 260 kt

c) Drift angle 7◦ Right, GS 273 kt

d) Drift angle 7◦ Left, GS 273 kt

ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

CHARTS

 

  1. If an earth distance of 100NM is represented on a chart by a line 7.9 inches long, the length of a line in inches representing 50 km is:

a) 2.00

b) 2.13

c) 2.18

d) 2.20

 

  1. A what distance in mm would 2 fixes taken 20 minutes apart appear on a 1:1 000 000 Scale chart if the GS was 180 kt.

a) 108

b) 96

c) 111

d) 103

 

  1. A Mercator has a scale of 1:6 000 000 at the Equator. How many statute miles are represented by 5 inches at 60◦S?

a) 948

b) 474

c) 237

d) 711

 

  1. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 5.827 inches and represents 148 km. The chart scale is:

a) 1:500 000

b) 1:1 000 000

c) 1:1 500 000

d) 1:2 000 000

 

  1. On a constant scale chart 1.28 inches represents 88 NM. The scale is:

a) 1:2 000 000

b) 1:5 000 000

c) 1:100 000

d) 1:1 500 000

 

  1. On a Mercator chart the distance between 60◦N 017◦W and 60◦N 019◦W is 8 inches. The chart distance between 00◦N/S 017◦W and 00◦N/S 019◦W would be:

a) 4 inches

b) 8 inches

c) 16 inches

d) 9.24 inches

  1. The scale of a chart is 1:730 000. How many cm on the chart are equivalent to 37 NM on the Earth?

a) 3.2

b) 0.3

c) 9.4

d)10.6

 

  1. The scale of a chart is 1:500 000. How many inches on the chart are equivalent to  127 km on the Earth?

a) 100

b) 10

c) 18.5

d)24.5

 

  1. A straight line on a chart of 9 inches is equivalent to 432 NM on the Earth. The chart scale is:

a) 1:2 000 000

b) 1:2 500 000

c) 1:5 000 000

d) 1:3 500 000

 

  1. A straight line on a chart of 25.4 cm is equivalent to 137 NM. What is the scale?

 a) 1:1 000 000

b) 1:500 000

c) 1:1 500 000

d) 1:2 000 000

 

  1. The scale of a chart is 1:185 320. A straight line drawn on this chart is 15 cm. What is the equivalent length of this line on the Earth in NM?

a) 25

b) 30

c) 15

d) 45

 

  1. The scale of a chart is 1:729 600. A straight line drawn on this chart is 8.9 cm. What is the equivalent length of this line on the Earth in NM?

a) 29

b) 35

c) 45

d) 60

  1. Chart convergency on a Mercator chart is:

a) ½ dlong x Sin Lat

b) dlong x Cos Lat

c) zero

d) dlong x Cos parallel of origin

 

  1. On a Mercator chart, chart convergency equals earth convergency:

a) At the parallel of origin

b) At the Equator

c) At the parallel of tangency

d) All of these

 

  1. On a Mercator chart the scale at 60◦ south compared with the scale at 30◦ south is:

a) Greater

b) The same

c) Smaller

d) 1/3 smaller

 

  1. On a Mercator chart a rhumb line is:

 a) A curve concave to the Pole

b) A curve concave to the Equator

c) A straight line

d) A curve concave to the central meridian

 

  1. On a Mercator chart a great circle between two points is:

a) A straight line

b) A curve convex to the nearer pole

c) A curve convex to the Equator

d) Always on the equatorial side of the rhumb line between them

 

  1. The scale of a Mercator chart is 1:5 000 000 at its parallel of origin. What is the scale at 60◦ North?

a) 1:10 000 000

b) 1:7 500 000

c) 1:5 000 000

d) 1:2 500 000

 

  1. The scale of a Mercator chart is 1:4000 000 at 30◦ North. What is the scale at 60◦ North?

a) 1:200 000

b) 1:230 000

c) 1:695 000

d) 1:800 000

 

  1. The scale of a Mercator chart is 1:730 000 at the Equator. What is the chart length to the nearest inch between meridians 3 degrees apart at 481/2◦ North?

a) 2

b) 18

c) 180

d) 20

 

  1. On a Mercator chart the rhumb line track from A (20◦S 20◦W) to B (40◦S 40◦W) is 220◦(T). What is the great circle bearing of A from B?

a) 035◦(T)

b) 215◦(T)

c) 045◦(T)

d) 225◦(T)

 

  1. On a Lamberts chart, chart convergency equals earth convergency:

a) At the Equator

b) The Poles

c) At the standard parallels

d) At the parallel of origin

 

  1. On a Lamberts chart, the true appearance of a great circle (other than a meridian) is:

a) A straight line

b) A curve convex to the nearer pole

c) A curve convex to the parallel of origin

d) A curve concave to the parallel of origin

 

  1. On a Lamberts chart, the published scale is correct:

a) At the Equator

b) The Poles

c) At the standard parallels

d) At the parallel of origin

 

 

  1. On a Lamberts chart, scale is least:

a) At the Equator

b) The Poles

c) At the standard parallels

d) At the parallel of origin

 

  1. The chart convergency on a Lamberts conical conformal chart is stated as being equal to the change of longitude x 0.5. A straight line track drawn on this chart from A (30◦S 107◦W) to B (42◦50’S 125◦W) measures 224◦(T) at A. Calculate:

The approximate rhumb line track from A to B is:

a) 233 ½◦(T)

b) 228 ½◦(T)

c) 219 ½◦(T)

d) 215◦(T)

 

  1. The Great Circle bearing of A from B is:

 a) 054◦(T)

b) 045◦(T)

c) 036◦(T)

d) 049.5◦(T)

 

  1. The constant of the cone of a Lamberts conical conformal chart is given as 0.75. A straight line drawn from C (45◦N 60◦W) to E in 10◦W passes through D in 28◦W. The direction of the track is 055◦(T) at C. Calculate:

The direction of the straight line track C to E, measured at D, is:

a) 067◦(T)

b) 079◦(T)

c) 055◦(T)

d) 031◦(T)

 

  1. The approximate rhumb line track from C to D is:

a) 067◦(T)

b) 079◦(T)

c) 055◦(T)

d) 043◦(T)

 

  1. The approximate rhumb line track from C to E is:

a) 098◦(T)

b) 036◦(T)

c) 093◦(T)

d) 074◦(T)

  1. The approximate rhumb line track from D to E is:

a) 062◦(T)

b) 086◦(T)

c) 074◦(T)

d) 072◦(T)

 

  1. A straight line track is drawn on a polar stereographic chart from A (85◦N 80◦W) to B (85◦N 130◦E). Calculate:

The track angle (◦T) A to B measured at A is:

a) 345

b) 015

c) 165

d) 195

 

  1. The track angle (◦T) B to A measured at B is:

a) 345

b) 015

c) 165

d) 195

 

  1. The track angle (◦T) A to B measured at 180◦E/W is:

a) 065

b) 085

c) 245

d) 155

 

  1. The longitude at which the track angle A to B measures 270◦(T) is:

a) 035◦E

b)155◦E

c) 035◦W

d) 155◦W

 

  1. For gyro steering purposes a polar stereographic chart is overlaid with a rectangle grid aligned with the Greenwich (prime) meridian. The Track angle, expressed in degrees grid, when the aircraft is at position 82◦N 113◦W on a track of  205◦(T) is:

a) 318

b) 113

c) 092

d) 138

  1. For gyro steering purposes a polar stereographic chart is overlaid with a rectangle grid aligned with the Greenwich (prime) meridian. The Track angle, expressed in degrees grid, when the aircraft is at position 70◦N 60◦E on a track of  090◦(T) is:

a) 150

b) 030

c) 330

d) 210

 

  1. An aircraft at DR position 66◦N 29◦W obtains an ADF bearing of 141◦ (relative) from an NDB at position 64◦N 22◦W. The aircraft heading is 352◦(M), the variation at the NDB is 15◦W and at the aircraft 12◦W. Calculate:

The bearing to plot, on a Mercator chart, from the meridian passing through the NDB:

a) 124◦

b) 298◦

c) 304◦

d) 308◦

 

  1. The bearing to plot, on a polar stereographic chart, from the meridian passing through the NDB:

a) 121◦

b) 294◦

c) 301◦

d) 308◦

 

  1. The bearing to plot, on a Lamberts conformal conic chart having standard parallels at 37◦N and 65◦N, from the meridian passing through the NDB is:

a) 126 ½◦

b) 306 ½◦

c) 295 ½◦

d) 304◦

 

  1. An aircraft at DR position 63◦S 47◦E obtains an RMI reading of 228 from a VOR at position 67◦S 39◦E. The aircraft heading is 025◦(M), the variation at the VOR is  15◦E and at the aircraft 11◦E. Calculate:

The position line to plot, on a Mercator chart from the meridian passing through the VOR is:

a) 055 ½◦

b) 056◦

c) 059 ½◦

d) 066 ½◦

 

  1. The position line to plot, on a polar stereographic chart from the meridian passing through the VOR is:

a) 048◦

b) 059◦

c) 063◦

d) 033◦

 

  1. The position line to plot, on a Lamberts conformal conic chart having a parallel of  origin at 55◦S, from the meridian passing through he VOR is:

a) 048◦

b) 059◦

c) 063◦

d) 033◦

 

  1. A Lamberts conformal conic chart and a transverse Mercator chart covering the same area of the Earth’s surface both have nominal scale of 1:3 000 000. The standard parallels of the Lamberts chart are at 25◦N and 45◦N and the central meridian of the transverse Mercator chart is 40◦E. Using this information, answer the following:

At position 50◦N 40◦E:

a) The Lambert chart has the larger scale

b) The transverse Mercator has the larger scale

c) Both charts have the same scale

d) Insufficient information is given to answer this question

 

  1. At position 25◦N 50◦E:

 a) The Lambert chart has the larger scale

b) The transverse Mercator has the larger scale

c) Both charts have the same scale

d) Insufficient information is given to answer this question

 

  1. At position 30◦N 30◦E:

a) The Lambert chart has the larger scale

b) The transverse Mercator has the larger scale

c) Both charts have the same scale

d) Insufficient information is given to answer this question

 

  1. At position 45◦N 40◦E:

a) The Lambert chart has the larger scale

b) The transverse Mercator has the larger scale

c) Both charts have the same scale

d) Insufficient information is given to answer this question

 

  1. On a polar stereographic chart, Earth convergency is correctly represented:

a) At all points on the chart

b) At the Equator

c) At the pole

d) At the meridian of tangency

 

  1. On a polar stereographic chart, a straight line is drawn from 70◦S 115◦W to 70◦S 125◦E. Using this information, answer the following:

The initial direction (◦T) of this straight line track is:

a) 330

b) 060

c) 130

d) 210

 

  1. The final direction (◦T) of this straight line track is:

a) 210

b) 330

c) 060

d) 130

 

  1. The longitude of the most southerly point on the straight line track is:

a) 175◦W

b) 180◦E/W

c) 175◦E

d) 165◦W

 

  1. On the chart, the most southerly point on this straight line track will appear to be:

a) At a lower latitude than 80◦S

b) At 80◦S

c) At a higher latitude than 80◦S

d) At a higher latitude than 85◦S

 

  1. For gyro steering purposes a polar stereographic chart is overlaid with a rectangle grid so that 000◦(G) coincides with 000◦(T) along the 060◦E meridian.The track angle expressed in ◦(G), at position 80◦N 10◦W with the aircraft making good a track of 300◦(M), local magnetic variation 25◦E, is:

a) 255

b) 335

c) 345

d) 035

  1. With an aircraft on a heading of 125◦(T) the relative bearing of an NDB is determined as 310◦. Given that the difference in longitude between the aircraft and the NDB is 6◦ and that the mean latitude between the aircraft and NDB is 68◦S, answer:

The bearing to plot, on a Mercator chart, from the meridian passing through the NDB is:

a) 252◦

b) 255◦

c) 258◦

d) 261◦

 

  1. The bearing to plot, on a polar stereographic chart, from the meridian passing through the NDB is:

a) 255◦

b) 261◦

c) 252◦

d) 249◦

 

  1. The bearing to plot, on a Lamberts conformal conic chart (parallel of origin 48◦S), from the meridian passing through the NDB is:

a) 249◦

b) 255◦

c) 250 ½◦

d) 259 ½◦

 

SOLAR SYSTEM and TIME

 

  1. What is the UTC/GMT of sunset in Hong Kong (22◦19N 114◦ 12◦E) on 24th July?

a) 0221 25th July

b) 1044 24th July

c) 1107 24th July

d) 0244 25th July

 

  1. Given the ST of the beginning of Evening Civil Twilight at Port Stanley (Falkland Islands) (51◦42’S 57◦ 51’W) on 23rd July?

a) 1613 23rd July

b) 1713 23rd July

c) 1539 23rd July

d) 1629 23rd July

 

  1. The times of sunrise, sunset as given in the Air Almanac are with reference to:

 a) LMT for the observer’s meridian

b) ST for the observer’s meridian

c) GMT for the observer’s meridian

d) UTC for the observer’s meridian

 

  1. In the Air Almanac twilight tables, the symbol //// means that:

a) Twilight lasts all day

b) The sun remains continuously above the horizon

c) The sun remains continuously below the horizon

d) Twilight lasts all night or day

 

  1. The LMT of sunrise at Lat 00◦30’S Long 47◦20’W on 4th December is:

a) 0451 LMT

b) 0640 LMT

c) 0256 LMT

d) 0545 LMT

 

  1. The LMT of the beginning of evening civil twilight at Lat 50◦00’S Long 120◦15’E on 25th December is:

a) 1641 LMT 25th December

b) 2055 LMT 25th December

c) 0412 LMT 26th December

d) 2011 LMT 25th December

  1. The LMT of sunrise at 35◦00’S 28◦00’E on 4th December is:

a) 0410

b) 0439

c) 0621

d) 0652

 

  1. The GMT of Evening Civil Twilight at 46◦19’N 035◦34’E on 26th July is:

a) 1751

b) 2238

c) 1754

d) 2016

 

  1. The duration of Morning Civil Twilight at 66◦48’N 095◦26’W on 2nd December is:

a) 94 min

b) 90 min

c) 84 min

d) 80 min

  1. The Standard Time of sunset at Hong Kong (22◦20’N 114◦ 10’E) on 31st Dec is:

a) 0126 1st Jan

b) 1726 31st Dec

c) 1749 31st Dec

d) 1759 31st Dec

 

  1. The LMT of the end of Evening Civil Twilight in latitude 71◦00’N on 19th Dec is:

a) 1330

b) 1301

c) 1350

d) 1400

 

  1. For an observer in the Norfolk Island (29◦00’S 167◦55’E) the LMT of sunset on 16th July is:

a) 1900

b) 1720

c) 1742

d) 1927

  1. For an observer in the Lord Howe Island (31◦31’S 159◦04’E) the LMT of sunrise and the duration of morning civil twilight on the 6th August are:

SUNRISE              DURATION

a) 0519                   34 min

b) 0647                  25 min

c) 0503                  34 min

d) 0644              25 min

 

  1. The duration of Evening Civil Twilight at Moscow (56◦00’N 037◦23’E) on the 14th  December was:

a) 13

b) 37

c) 47

d) 42

  1. A flight departed Boston (Massachusetts, USA, 42◦22’N 071◦00’W), two hours after sunset on 16th September. The flight time to Brussels (Belgium, 50◦55’N  004◦31’E) was 6 hours 30 minutes. The UTC time and date of departure was:

a) 16th 2023

b) 17th 0053

c) 17th 0823

d) 16th 1224

 

  1. The UTC of sunrise at 54◦00’N 010◦00’E on 10th July is:

a) 0308

b) 0224

c) 0300

d) 0344

 

  1. In Hong Kong (22◦19’N 114◦12’E), the UTC of sunset on 24th July is:

a) 0221 25th July

b) 1044 24th July

c) 1107 24h July

d) 0244 25th July

 

  1. For an observer at 62◦50’N 048◦57’W on the 7th July, the local time of sunrise is:

a) 0208

b) 0524

c) 2252

d) does not rise

 

  1. An observer in Korea (38◦00’N 133◦00’E) watches the sunset on 13th August local date. The duration of evening civil twilight would be:

a)  25 min

b) 38 min

c) 27 min

d) 20 min

  1. An observer in Korea (38◦00’N 133◦00’E) watches the sunset on 13th August local date. The time of sunset expressed as GMT would be:

a) 0350 14th

b) 0350 13th

c) 1006 13th

d) 1006 14th

 

  1. An observer in Korea (38◦00’N 133◦00’E) watches the sunset on 13th August local date. The time of sunset expressed as Standard Time would be:

a) 1906 14th

b) 1858 14th

c) 1858 13th

d) 1906 13th

 

  1. In its path around the Sun, the axis of the Earth has an inclination:
  2. a) Varying between zero and 23◦27’ with the plane of the path
  3. b) Of 66◦33’ with the plane
  4. c) Varying with the season of the year
  5. d) Of 23◦27’ with the plane of Equator

 

 

  1. The Sun’s declination is on a particular day 12.00 S. Midnight Sun may this day be observed:

a) North of 7800S

b) South of 7800S

c) At 7800S only

d) North of 7800N

 

  1. The term ‘sidereal’ is used:

a) To describe how two positions of heavenly bodies are located sideways on the sky

b) To describe conditions with reference to the moon

c) To describe a situation or relationship concerning the stars

d) To describe the time interval between two successive transits of the real apparent Sun at the same meridian

 

  1. The mean Sun:

a) Is the middle position of the Sun

b) Has a declination equal to the apparent Sun

c) Moves with constant speed along the celestial Equator

d) Is only of interest to users of astronomical navigation

 

  1. A day at a place as measured in local mean time starts:

a) When the mean sun transits the meridian of the place in question

b) When the mean sun transits the Greenwich meridian

c) When the mean sun transits the anti meridian of the place in question

d) When the mean sun transits the 180E/W meridian

 

  1. The inclination of the Earth’s axis of rotation with the plane of the ecliptic:

a) Is causing the variation of length of the day during a year

b) Is stable throughout the year

c) Is causing the seasons, summer and winter

d) All 3 answers are correct

 

  1. As seen from an observer on the surface of the Earth:

a) The sun is in a fixed position relative to the stars

b) The stars will seem to move from west to east during a year

c) The sun’s position relative to the stars is fixed throughout the year

d) The apparent sun is always in the plane of the ecliptic

  

  1. If the Mean Sun moves 121◦ 30’ along the Equator, that equals:

a) 20 hours 10 minutes

b) 9 hours 15 minutes

c) 6 hours 20 minutes

d) 8 hours 06 minutes

 

  1. The direction of the Earth’s rotation on its axis is such that:

a) Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counterclockwise

b) An observer on the surface of the Earth always will face west when observing sunrise

c) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward

d) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward

 

  1. When the Sun’s declination is northerly:

a) It is winter on the Northern Hemisphere

b) The sunrise occurs earlier at southern latitudes than northern latitudes

c) The daylight period is shorter on the Southern Hemisphere

d) Midnight sun may be observed at the South Pole

 

  1. The length of an apparent solar day is not constant because:

 a) The Earth’s speed in its orbit varies continuous, due to the orbit being elliptical

b) The Earth’s speed of rotation is not the same at all latitudes

c) The Sun’s declination is not constant

d) The Earth is moving with constant speed around the Sun

 

  1. By the term ‘transit’ of a heavenly body it is understood that:

a) The body is moving

b) The body is passing the meridian of the observer or another specified meridian

c) The body is passing the anti meridian of the observer

d) The body is at the same celestial meridian as another body

 

  1. Atmospheric refraction:

a) Causes the sunrise and the sunset to occur earlier

b) Causes the sunrise and the sunset to occur later

c) Causes the sunrise to occur later and the sunset to occur earlier

d) Causes the sunrise to occur earlier and the sunset to occur later

 

  1. When approaching the International Date Line from East longitude, you:

a) Should be prepared to increase your date by 1

b) Should increase your date by an extra date at the first midnight you experience

c) Should be prepared to decrease your date by 1

d) Should not change date at the first midnight you experience

 

  1. The duration of twilight:

a) Will in the period around the Equinoxes increase as you approach the Equator from North or South

b) Is generally longer in positions at high latitudes than in positions at lower positions

c) Is independent of the sun’s declination and only depends on the observer’s latitude and longitude

d) Is longer in the morning than in the evening because of the refraction in the atmosphere

ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

PRACTICAL NAVIGATION

 

  1. A ground feature is observed in line with the wing tip whilst flying at 300 kt GS.  After 5 minutes the same feature is 7◦ behind the wing tip. What is the aircraft distance from the ground feature? (Use 1:6 rule)

a) 230 NM

b) 214 NM

c) 150 NM

d) 164 NM

 

  1. A fix indicates you are 70 NM from a ground feature that is in line with the wing tip. After 2 minutes the same feature is 3◦ behind the wing tip. What is your Ground Speed? (Use 1:6 rule)

a) 125 kt

b) 154 kt

c) 105 kt

d) 251 kt

 

  1. A fix indicates you are 52 NM from a ground feature that is in line with the wing tip Whilst flying at 210 knots. After 1 minute how many degrees behind the wing will You see the ground feature? (Use 1:6 rule)

a) 4◦

b) 7◦

c) 8◦

d) 3◦

 

  1. A ground feature is observed in line with the wing tip whilst flying at 180 kt GS.  After 4 minutes the same feature is 5◦ behind the wing tip. What is the aircraft  distance from the ground feature? (Use 1:6 rule)

a) 155 NM

b) 166 NM

c) 144 NM

d) 170 NM

 

  1. A fix indicates you are120NM from a ground feature that is in line with the wing tip. After 2 minutes the same feature is 2◦ behind the wing tip. What is your Ground Speed? (Use 1:6 rule)

a) 100 kt

b) 110 kt

c) 130 kt

d) 120 kt

  1. Kerry (5210.9N 00932.0W) is 41 NM DME. Galway (5318.1N 00856.5W) is 50 NM DME. What is your position? (Use chart E(LO)1)

a) 5242N 00827W

b) 5255N 00819W

c) 5219N 00809W

d) 5230N 00834W

 

  1. What is the mean true track and distance from the BAL VOR (5318N 00627W) to CRN VOR/DME (5318N 00856W)? (Use chart E(LO)1)

a) 272 89

b) 272 88

c) 270 89

d) 270 88

 

  1. You are on the 239 radial 36 NM from SHA VOR (5243N 00853W). What is your position? (Use chart E(LO)1)

a) 5212N 00915W

b) 5212N 00930W

c) 5215N 00930W

d) 5220N 00939W

 

  1. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR (5243N 00853W) to Birr Airport (5304N 00754W)? (Use chart E(LO)1)

a) 068M 40NM

b) 068M 42NM

c) 060M 40NM

d) 060M 42NM

 

  1. What is the average track (◦T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7)? Refer to E(LO)1

a) 277◦ – 83 NM

b) 286◦ – 81 NM

c) 294◦ – 80 NM

d) 075◦ – 81 NM

 

RELATIVE VELOCITY

 

  1. Aircraft A is at FL350, TAS 440 kt with an equivalent wind component (EWC) of  -50 kt and estimating TLA NDB at 0815. Aircraft B is on the same track at FL310, TAS 480 kt with a wind component of -30 kt and estimating TLA at 0820. The time at which aircraft B will overtake A is:

a) 0848

b) 0844

c) 0852

d) 0856

 

  1. Aircraft A is at FL350, M0.82, OAT -55◦C with an EWC of +25 kt and estimating POL NDB at 1020. Aircraft B is on the same track at FL310, M0.82, OAT -46◦C  with a wind component of +40 kt and estimating POL at 1022. The two aircraft will pass at:

a) 244 NM from POL

b) 232 NM from POL

c) 343 NM from POL

d) 299 NM from POL

 

  1. Aircraft A passes over VOR ‘A’ at 1110 enroute to VOR ‘B’ 1232 NM away at a Groundspeed of 490 kt. Aircraft B reports VOR ‘B’ at 1123 on a reciprocal track with a Ground speed of 380 kt. The aircraft will pass at:

a) 1243

b) 1246

c) 1237

d) 1241

 

  1. The distance from ‘A’ the aircraft in Question 140 will pass is:

a) 637 NM

b) 743 NM

c) 595 NM

d) 768 NM

 

  1. An aircraft is cruising at M0.84, FL330, OAT -43◦C with a wind component of -30 kt and reports waypoint ‘G’ at 2230. ATC instructs the pilot to reduce speed to M0.76 at his discretion to be at waypoint ‘H’, 350 NM away, not before 2320.

The latest time at which the speed reduction can be made is:

 a) 2230

b) 2237

c) 2233

d) 2241

 

  1. Aircraft J is overhead YQT NDB at 0800 with a groundspeed of 300 kt. Aircraft K is following on the same track with a groundspeed of 360 kt and is overhead YQT at 0825. The time at which the aircraft will be 100 NM apart is:

a) 0832

b) 0825

c) 0850

d) 0856

 

  1. The aircraft in Question 143 are routing to VBI VOR 196 NM from YQT. The minimum groundspeed reduction that aircraft K must make at YQT to be 120 NM  behind J when J passes VBI is:

a) 115 kt

b) 21 kt

c) 63 kt

d) 39 kt

 

  1. Use the following information to answer Questions 145, 146, 147: Aircraft A is overhead waypoint 1 at 2330 enroute to waypoint 2, 750 NM away at a groundspeed of 490 kt. Aircraft B checks waypoint 1 on the same track but 4000 ft  lower at 2335 with a groundspeed of 535 kt. If no speed changes are made the distance from waypoint 1 that the aircraft will pass is:

a) 487 NM

b) 505 NM

c) 525 NM

d) 543 NM

 

  1. Aircraft B is instructed to reduce speed to 490 kt to cross waypoint 2, 2 minutes after aircraft A. The latest time for speed reduction is:

 a) 0003

b) 0008

c) 0013

d) 0018

 

  1. At the point of speed reduction the separation of the two aircraft is:

a) 20 NM

b) 14 NM

c) 18 NM

d) 16 NM

 

 

 

  1. Aircraft A, FL330, TAS 400 kt, EWC -30 kt, estimates point X at 1620. Aircraft B, FL 370, TAS 515 kt, EWC -40 kt, estimates point X at 1625. Both aircraft are on the same track. The time aircraft B will pass aircraft A is:

 a) 1637½

b) 1642½

c) 1647

d) 1629

 

  1. An aircraft with a GS of 300 kt is overhead J at 1100. This aircraft is followed by another at the same FL, GS 360 kt, which arrives overhead J at 1125. Both aircraft  are following the same route to K, 220 NM from J. The first time the aircraft will be 120 NM apart is:

 a) 1130

b) 1125

c) 1144

d) 1151

 

  1. Aircraft X, GS 315 kt is over point C at 1200 on the direct track to D, 300 NM from At 1224 aircraft Y, flying the same route at the same FL, but with GS 405 kt passes over point C. At what time will the separation between the aircraft be 90 NM?

a) 1225

b) 1248

c) 1245½

d) 1224

 

  1. An aircraft with a GS of 285 kt is overhead P at 0630. Another aircraft follows this aircraft, GS 318 kt, and reports overhead P 15 minutes later. Both aircraft are following the same track.        Using the above information, answer the following question and Question 152. The time at which the distance between the aircraft has reduced to 40 NM is:

a) 0727

b) 0742

c) 0651

d) 0636

 

  1. How far from P will the slower aircraft be at this time?

a) 270½ NM

b) 342 NM

c) 160 NM

d) 28 NM

  1. On a flight from A to B, distance 720 NM, an aircraft whose GS is 360 kt is instructed to delay arrival by nine minutes. It is decided that this will be accomplished by reducing the GS by 60 kt. The minimum distance from B that this reduction can be carried out is:

 a) 54 NM

b) 45 NM

c) 270 NM

d) 324 NM

 

  1. On a flight from E to F, distance 720 NM, an aircraft, GS 250 kt is instructed to delay arrival by six minutes. This is to be accomplished by reducing the GS to 200 kt. The minimum distance from F that this reduction can be carried out is:

a) 130 NM

b) 25 NM

c) 100 NM

d) 125 NM

 

  1. Aircraft A, TAS 402 kt, EWC -30 kt, estimates point Q at 2348. Aircraft B, TAS 455 kt, EWC -40 kt, estimates point Q at 2333. Both aircraft are on the same track. Using the above information, answer the following question and Question 156. What is the latest time aircraft A must reduce TAS to 366 kt so as to arrive overhead Q, 20 minutes after aircraft B?

a) 2241½

b) 2301½

c) 2313

d) 2257

 

  1. How far from Q is aircraft B at the time calculated above:

a) 248 NM

b) 138 NM

c) 1,473 NM

d) 218 NM

 

  1. An aircraft TAS 500 kt, HWC 78 kt, is requested not to cross position X, 630 NM away, before 1754. The request is made at 1612. What is the latest time at which the aircraft TAS can be reduced to 400 kt, in order to cross position X at  1754:

 a) 1703

b) 1624

c) 1701

d) 1654

 

POINT OF SAFE RETURN AND POINT OF EQUAL TIME

 

  1. Calculate the distance to the PSR from origin, point A, given:

Safe endurance               2.5 hours

TAS                                 200 kt

W/V                                200◦/25 kt

Track A – B                    047◦

 

  1. a) 200 NM
  2. b) 212 NM
  3. c) 224 NM
  4. d) 246 NM

 

 

  1. Calculate the distance to the PSR from origin, point A, given:

Safe endurance               3 hours 54 minutes

Ground speed out           180 kt

Ground speed home        200 kt

 

  1. a) 370 km
  2. b) 390 NM
  3. c) 370 NM
  4. d) 390 km

 

 

  1. Calculate the time to the PSR, given:

Safe endurance               3 hours

Ground speed out           170 kt

Ground speed home        185 kt

 

  1. a) 1 hour 36 min
  2. b) 1 hour 34 min
  3. c) 1 hour 32 min
  4. d) 1 hour

 

 

  1. Calculate the distance to PSR, given:

Safe endurance               11 hours

Ground speed out           478 kt

Ground speed home        575 kt

 

  1. a) 3871 NM
  2. b) 2781 NM
  3. c) 2500 NM
  4. d) 2871 NM

 

  1. Calculate the time and distance to the PSR given a turbojet aircraft requiring

statutory reserve of 30 minutes given:

COAT                 -47◦C

Mach                   0.78

W/C Out             + 140 kt

Trip distance       5100 NM

Total endurance  11 hours 30 minutes

 

  1. a) 2625 NM 8 hours
  2. b) 2225 NM 2 hours
  3. c) 2265 NM 8 hours
  4. d) 2100 NM 2 hours

 

  1. How does the wind component affect the PSR? An increase or decrease in wind component will ———- the distance to the PSR?

 

  1. a) Increase
  2. b) Decrease
  3. c) Not change
  4. d) Increase or decrease

 

  1. Calculate the distance to PSR, given:

TAS                     450 kt

EWC Out                        -100 kt

Safe endurance   6 hours

 

  1. a) 1283 NM
  2. b) 1085 NM
  3. c) 1283 NM
  4. d) 1085 NM

 

  1. Calculate the time to the PSR, given:

Safe endurance               6 hours 30 minutes

Ground speed out           225 kt

Ground speed home        145 kt

 

  1. a) 2.54 hours
  2. b) 2 hours 54 min
  3. c) 30 hours
  4. d) 2 hours 10 minutes

 

  1. Calculate the distance to the PSR, given:

Safe endurance               10 hours

TAS                                 454 kt

W/V at 25 000ft              270◦/100 kt

Heading Out                   090◦

Flight Level                     250

 

  1. a) 2100 NM
  2. b) 2160 NM
  3. c) 2200 NM
  4. d) 2222 NM

 

  1. What is the distance to PSR, given:

Safe endurance               4 hours

Ground speed out           140 kt

Ground speed home        90 kt

 

  1. a) 193 NM
  2. b) 219 NM
  3. c) 229 NM
  4. d) 232 NM

 

  1. An aircraft departs point A to route via points B and C to get to D. Given the data below, where does the PSR lie in relation to A?

Sector                              Distance                      TAS                 W/C

A-B                                 1000 NM                     500 kt              +50

B-C                                 1500 NM                     500 kt              -200

C-D                                 50 NM                         500 kt              Zero

Total (ATC) Endurance  8 hours

Required Reserves          30 minutes

 

  1. a) 1635 NM
  2. b) 1729 NM
  3. c) 1808 NM
  4. d) 1812 NM

 

  1. As far as the critical point is concerned, the PET always moves ———– wind.

 

  1. a) Into
  2. b) Out of
  3. c) Because of
  4. d) Around

 

 

  1. An aircraft is in the cruise having departed point A at 1200 hours UTC. Aircraft systems are functioning properly. A passenger, however, has suffered from a major heart attack, and has not responded well to onboard treatment. The pilot has the option to use an (on-track) en-route alternate, and must decide whether to return to base or continue to the alternate. The pilot must therefore decide where he is in relation to PET for this type of emergency, in order to expedite a landing as soon as possible. Fuel is sufficient for any reasonable course of action. At what time will he calculate the PET should be / should have been reached?

 

Cruise speed (TAS) outbound                 400 kt

Highest available safe cruise speed          430 kt

Distance from base to en-route alternate 2000 NM

Equivalent Wind Speed (out / in)                        +90 kt

(home)                                                      -90 kt

 

  1. a) 1259 UTC
  2. b) 1435 UTC
  3. c) 1400 UTC
  4. d) 1337 UTC

 

  1. Given the following information, calculate the time taken to reach the PET:

A to B is 500 NM

TAS is 300 kt

EWC out / on -25 kt, back +30 kt

 

  1. a) 30 minutes
  2. b) 45 minutes
  3. c) 59 minutes
  4. d) 61 minutes

 

MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES

ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

Magnetic Compass

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Deviation due to vertical soft iron varies:

 

  1. a) Directly with the tangent of the dip angle
  2. b) Directly with H, the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field
  3. c) Directly with Z, the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field
  4. d) Inversely with the tangent of the dip angle

 

  1. Coefficient B is the sum of:

 

  1. a) P and cZ
  2. b) P and fZ
  3. c) Q and cZ
  4. d) Q and fZ

 

  1. Coefficient C is the sum of:

 

a) P and fZ

b) P and cZ

c) Q and cZ

d) Q and fZ

 

  1. A change in the deviation of the magnetic compass will occur with an increase of magnetic latitude because:

 

a) Residual dip increase with an increase in latitude

b) The Z component of the Earth’s magnetic field increase with an increase in latitude

c) Horizontal hard iron increases with an increase in latitude

d) Horizontal hard iron decreases with an increase in latitude

 

  1. When carrying out a compass swing, you must align:

 

a) True North and magnetic North

b) Magnetic North and compass North

c) True North and compass North

d) Compass lubber line and compass North

 

  1. In a turn from 045◦ to 315◦ through North, in the Southern hemisphere, the movement of the magnet system of a direct reading compass when viewed from above, and the effect of liquid swirl caused by the movement, are:

 

Magnet System               Liquid Swirl

a) Clockwise Reduce

b) Anti-clockwise Reduce

c) Clockwise Increase

d) Anti-clockwise Increase

  1. During deceleration after a landing on a northerly runway in the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will indicate:

 

  1. a) An apparent turn to the North
  2. b) No apparent turn
  3. c) An apparent turn to the South
  4. d) A heading fluctuation about 360◦

 

  1. What are the primary methods of achieving Horizontality, Sensitivity, and Aperiodicity in a Direct Reading Compass?

 

Horizontality                       Sensitivity                   Aperiodicity

  1. a) Low CG Jeweled pivot Wires in the fluid
  2. b) Low CG Large magnets Immerse in fluid
  3. c) Strong magnets Immerse in fluid Damping filaments
  4. d) High CG Jeweled pivot Damping filaments

 

  1. If a turn is made from 130◦ to 230◦ with reference to a DGI, what will the DRC read on initial roll out?

 

  1. a) 230◦ in the Northern hemisphere
  2. b) 210◦ in the Southern hemisphere
  3. c) 210◦ in the Northern hemisphere
  4. d) 250◦ in the Southern hemisphere

 

PRESSURE INSTRUMENTS AND RADIO ALTIMETERS

 

  1. With reference to an altimeter, what will be the effect if the static source becomes blocked during the climb:

 

  1. a) It will indicate a large increase
  2. b) It will progressively under read
  3. c) It will indicate zero
  4. d) It will progressively over read

 

  1. If a servo altimeter has a quoted accuracy of 1 hPa, what is the accuracy at FL 300 and FL390:

 

  1. a) 70 ft and 105 ft
  2. b) 70 ft and 83 ft
  3. c) 47 ft and 83 ft
  4. d) 47 ft and 105 ft

 

  1. When flying an aircraft from an area of warm air to an area of cold air, the altimeter will:

 

  1. a) Under reads
  2. b) Stays the same
  3. c) Over reads
  4. d) The instrument will act as a VSI

 

  1. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:

 

  1. a) Aperiodicity
  2. b) Frictional lag
  3. c) Hysteresis
  4. d) Horizontality

 

  1. Lag in an IVSI is virtually eliminated by means of:

 

  1. a) An accelerometer system
  2. b) A vibrator
  3. c) A bimetallic strip
  4. d) A ceramic choke unit

 

  1. A blockage occurs in the ram air source and drain hole, with the static source open. The airspeed indicator in a non-pressurised aircraft will:

 

  1. a) Read a little high
  2. b) Act like an altimeter
  3. c) Read a little low
  4. d) Freeze at zero
  5. An airspeed indicator has a leak in the circuit supplying pitot air, what will be seen on the indicator:

 

  1. a) Act as an altimeter
  2. b) Over read
  3. c) Under read
  4. d) Remain affected

 

  1. An ASI circuit consist of pressure sensors, the Pitot Probe measures:

 

  1. a) Dynamic pressure
  2. b) Total pressure
  3. c) Total pressure and Static pressure
  4. d) Static pressure

 

  1. The CAS is obtained by applying to the IAS:

 

  1. a) An instrument and position/pressure error correction
  2. b) An instrument and density correction
  3. c) A compressibility correction
  4. d) A compressibility and density correction

 

  1. The white arc on an ASI indicates:

 

  1. a) Vso at the lower end and Vfe at the upper end
  2. b) Vsi at the lower end and Vfe at the upper end
  3. c) Vso at the lower end and Vno at the upper end
  4. d) Vsi at the lower end and Vne at the upper end

 

  1. Mach number is defined as the ratio of:

 

  1. a) TAS to LSS
  2. b) IAS to LSS
  3. c) CAS to LSS
  4. d) EAS to LSS

 

  1. Which of the following instruments have a feed of pitot pressure:

I   Altimeter

II  ASI

III VSI

IV Mach meter

V  ADC

 

  1. a) All
  2. b) II, III, IV and V
  3. c) II, IV and V
  4. d) II and IV
  5. If the static vent becomes blocked during a descent:

I   Altimeter will under read/Mach meter will under read

II  VSI will indicate a climb/ASI will over read

III Mach meter will over read/VSI reduces to zero

IV ASI over reads/Altimeter over reads

V  VSI indicates descent/Altimeter does not change

 

  1. a) III and IV
  2. b) I and V
  3. c) III and V
  4. d) II and I

 

  1. A conventional Mach meter consists of:

 

  1. a) An ASI with an altitude capsule
  2. b) An ASI with a mach scale
  3. c) An altimeter corrected for density
  4. d) A VSI and altimeter combined

 

  1. What does a Mach meter measure?

T = Total pressure, S = Static pressure, D = Dynamic pressure

 

  1. a) T – S/S
  2. b) D – S/S
  3. c) D + S/T
  4. d) D/T – S

 

  1. What are the inputs of the Air Data Computer:

I   TAT

II  SAT

III Angle of attack

IV Static pressure

V  Dynamic pressure

VI Pitot pressure

VII Electric power

 

  1. a) I, III, IV, VI and VII
  2. b) I, II, III, V and VII
  3. c) I, III, V and VI
  4. d) II, IV and V

 

  1. A modern radio altimeter uses the frequency band:

 

  1. a) HF
  2. b) VHF
  3. c) SHF
  4. d) UHF
  5. Which is the operation frequency for a radio altimeter?

 

  1. a) 430,000MHz
  2. b) 4,300 MHz
  3. c) 430 MHz
  4. d) 4.3 MHz

 

  1. A radio altimeter is:

 

  1. a) Ground based and measures true height
  2. b) Aircraft based and measures true altitude
  3. c) Aircraft based and measures true height
  4. d) Ground based and measures true altitude

 

  1. The radio altimeter is used for accurate height indication on modern transport aircraft between:

 

  1. a) 50 ft and 2450 ft
  2. b) 0 ft and 5000 ft
  3. c) 50 ft and 5000 ft
  4. d) 0 ft and 2500 ft

 

GYROS

 

  1. An air driven DGI will have:

 

  1. a) One degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
  2. b) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
  3. c) One degree of freedom and a vertical axis
  4. d) Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis

 

  1. The properties of a gyroscopic flight instrument are:

I   Rigidity

II  Precession

III Inertia

IV Instability

 

  1. a) I, II, III and IV
  2. b) I and II
  3. c) II and IV
  4. d) I, II and III

 

  1. The sources of error in a DGI are:

I   Earth rate

II  Transport wander

III Manufacture

IV Gimbal lock

V  Rigidity

VI Precession

 

  1. a) I, II, and III
  2. b) I, II, III, IV, V, VI
  3. c) I, II, III and IV
  4. d) II, III, IV, V and VI

 

  1. What will the drift rate of a frictionless gyro at a mean latitude of 30◦N traveling from 30◦W to 36◦W in two hours if the latitude nut is set for 50◦N?

 

  1. a) +2.5◦/hour
  2. b) +5.5◦/hour
  3. c) -5.5◦/hour
  4. d) +11.0◦/hour

 

  1. A Gyro used in a Rate of turn and bank indicator will have:

 

a) Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis

b) One degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis

c) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis

d) One degree of freedom and a vertical

  1. The needle and ball of a TBI are both displaced to the right, what condition is shown:

 

  1. a) A left turn with too much bank
  2. b) A right turn with too little bank
  3. c) A right turn with too much bank
  4. d) A left turn with too little bank

 

  1. What angle of bank is required for a Rate 1 turn for an aircraft traveling at 180 kt?

 

  1. a) 10◦
  2. b) 18◦
  3. c) 25◦
  4. d) 30◦

 

  1. A Gyro used in an instrument which, provides roll and pitch information, has:

 

  1. a) One degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis
  2. b) Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis
  3. c) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis
  4. d) One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis

 

  1. If an Aircraft carries out a 270◦ turn to the left, what will a classic AH indicate?

 

  1. a) Nose up, bank left
  2. b) Nose down, bank left
  3. c) Nose up, bank right
  4. d) Nose down, bank right

 

  1. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on:

 

  1. a) An artificial horizon
  2. b) A directional compass
  3. c) A gyromagnetic compass
  4. d) A turn indicator

 

BASIC RADIO PRINCIPLES

ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

HF Transmission

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The distance traveled by a radio wave in the direction of propagation during one cycle is:

 

  1. a) Frequency
  2. b) Polarisation
  3. c) Cyclic range
  4. d) Wavelength

 

  1. The speed of radio waves in free space is:

 

  1. a) 30 million m/s
  2. b) 161 800 m/s
  3. c) 300 million m/s
  4. d) 1860 NM/s

 

  1. The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 1.4 km is:

 

  1. a) 214 MHz
  2. b) 214 kHz
  3. c) 116 Hz
  4. d) 4.7 kHz

 

  1. A wavelength of 3 cm is equivalent to a frequency of:

 

  1. a) 3 GHz
  2. b) 300 GHz
  3. c) 100 MHz
  4. d) 10 GHz

 

  1. A radio aid operating on a frequency of 114.95 MHz would be in the:

 

  1. a) VHF band
  2. b) UHF band
  3. c) MF band
  4. d) SHF band

 

  1. Radio work is confined to a spectrum of frequencies between 3 kHz and 300 GHz  mainly because:

 

a) Very high power inputs are necessary at extremely long wavelengths

b) Large aerials are required at extremely high frequencies, coupled with problems of static and attenuation of very long wavelengths

c) Atmospheric static affects very low frequencies also radio waves of extremely short wavelengths are severely attenuated

d) Both a) and c)

  1. Attenuation of radio waves is usually caused by:

 

  1. a) Absorption
  2. b) Scattering
  3. c) Geometrical dispersion
  4. d) Any or all of these

 

  1. The process by which the amplitude of a radio carrier wave is varied in sympathy with the amplitude & frequency of as audio wave is known as:

 

  1. a) Frequency modulation
  2. b) Pulse modulation
  3. c) Phase modulation
  4. d) Amplitude modulation

 

  1. The bandwidth of a transmission is:

 

  1. a) Twice the maximum frequency of the modulating audio wave
  2. b) The width of one sideband
  3. c) The difference between carrier and audio frequencies
  4. d) Half the modulating frequency

 

  1. The emission code for a VOR is:

 

  1. a) A9W
  2. b) F
  3. c) A1A
  4. d) A8W

 

  1. The range at which ground waves can be received depends upon:

 

  1. a) The frequency & power of transmission
  2. b) Height of aerials and interference
  3. c) Nature of terrain
  4. d) All of the above

 

  1. The principal source of attenuation in the ionosphere and of the refraction of VLF waves during daylight is:

 

  1. a) The ‘D’ layer
  2. b) The ‘E’ layer
  3. c) The ‘F’ layer
  4. d) All of these

 

 

 

  1. Regarding HF communications, frequencies used by night are usually:

 

  1. a) The same as daytime frequencies
  2. b) Lower than daytime frequencies
  3. c) Higher than daytime frequencies
  4. d) Higher or lower depending on the strength of the ionosphere

 

  1. Which of the following is attributed to VHF/UHF propagation?

 

  1. a) Direct waves super-refraction
  2. b) Direct waves ionosphere ducting
  3. c) Ground waves ionosphere ducting
  4. d) Sky waves ‘D’ layer attenuation

 

  1. If the power of a transmitter is quadrupled, the range effectively would:

 

  1. a) Increase 1.4 times
  2. b) Double
  3. c) Quadruple
  4. d) Remain the same

 

  1. What is the wavelength of a VOR?

 

  1. a) Metric
  2. b) Decimetric
  3. c) Heximetric
  4. d) Centimetric

 

  1. If the strength of a radio signal decreases away from the transmitter, this effect is called:

 

  1. a) Attenuation
  2. b) Ducting
  3. c) Refraction
  4. d) Fading

 

  1. What wavelength are used for NDB?

 

  1. a) Hectometric
  2. b) Metric
  3. c) Centimetric
  4. d) Decimetric

 

VHF DIRECTION FINDING

 

  1. VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency band:

 

  1. a) 108 – 136 MHz
  2. b) 118 – 137 MHz
  3. c) 130 – 300 MHz
  4. d) 108 – 118 MHz

 

  1. The indicator of the ground VDF equipment responds to:

 

  1. a) The carrier wave received
  2. b) The identification transmitted from the aircraft
  3. c) The voice modulated signal transmitted by the aircraft
  4. d) The signal being reflected from the aircraft

 

  1. If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it means?

 

a) The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based on VDF bearings

b) The VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the same frequency

c) The bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level

d) The service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the DF station

 

  1. A ground DF (VDF) station will normally provide the following bearings to an aircraft in flight:

 

  1. a) QTE/QDM
  2. b) QUJ/QNH
  3. c) QNE/QNH
  4. d) QDR/QFE

 

NDB AND ADF

 

  1. The basic information given by the ADF is:

 

  1. a) The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB
  2. b) The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB
  3. c) The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft
  4. d) The magnetic direction of the loop aerial with reference to the sense aerial

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding an aeronautical NDB is correct?

 

a) It operates in the MF/HF band

b) To overcome the limitations caused by ‘line of sight’ propagation, high power transmitters must be used

c) It is very simple, transmitter being required to transmit only a carrier wave and identification

d) In Europe, most NDB’s operate in the frequency band 455 – 1750 kHz

 

  1. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

 

a) 108.0 MHz – 117.9 MHz

b) 200 – 1750 MHz

c) 200 – 1750 Hz

d) 190 – 1750 kHz

 

  1. Homing on an NDB:

 

a) Calls for an assessment of the drift

b) Is most effective in strong winds

c) Will in most situations result in frequent heading changes when approaching the NDB

d) Will result in passing the NDB along the planned track

 

  1. Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF:

a) The ANT position of the function switch can be used to listen for NDB ID

b) Strong static emitted from the CB may cause the ADF needle to deflect towards the CB

c) The static emitted from the CB during daytime will fade soon after you have passed it

d) All 3 answers are correct

 

 6.   An aircraft is flying on heading 330◦ and relative bearing to an NDB is 190◦. Calculate QDR:

 

  1. a) 360◦
  2. b) 160◦
  3. c) 340◦
  4. d) 140◦

 

  1. An aircraft is flying on heading 300◦, variation in the area 13◦W and the realative bearing is 350◦. Calculate QDM:

 

  1. a) 110◦
  2. b) 290◦
  3. c) 300◦
  4. d) 150◦

 

  1. The bearings from NDB’s are least accurate at:

 

  1. a) Midnight
  2. b) Midday
  3. c) Dawn and Dusk
  4. d) The accuracy does not change during night or day

 

  1. Fading of an ADF signal, together with a hunting needle, is indication of:

 

  1. a) Quadrantal effect
  2. b) Thunderstorm effect
  3. c) Night effect
  4. d) Mountain effect

 

VOR AND DOPPLER VOR

ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

DVOR

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:

 

  1. a) Is always directed toward the aircraft
  2. b) Is like a figure of 8
  3. c) Is a pencil beam
  4. d) Rotates at 30 revolutions per second

 

  1. The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

 

a) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR

b) Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR

c) Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle

d) Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication

 

  1. In order to establish what radial you are on, you could:

 

a) Read the OBS when the CDI is centred and the TO/FROM is showing TO

b) Rotate the OBS until the CDI is centred and the TO/FROM indicator is showing FROM. Then read the radial on the OBS

c) Turn the OBS to make the TO/FROM change from TO to FROM. The OBS is now indicating the radial you are on

d) Turn the aircraft until the CDI is centred. The aircraft magnetic heading is now the reciprocal of the radial you are on

 

  1. The height of a VOR above MSL is HT(VOR) feet, and the aircraft is flying at true altitude HT(a/c) feet. Which equation will show maximum range in NM of reception

of this VOR?

 

a) Max. range = 1.25 times square root of HT(a/c) + 1.25 times square root of HT(VOR)

b) Max. range = 1.25 times square root of HT(a/c) + 1.25 times of HT(VOR)

c) Max. range = 1.25 times square root of HT(a/c) – 1.25 times square root of HT(VOR)

d) Max. range = 1.25 times square root of HT(a/c) – 1.25 times of HT(VOR)

 

  1. What degrades the accuracy of a VOR?

 

  1. a) Static interference
  2. b) Propagation errors due to uneven terrain
  3. c) Night effect
  4. d) Coastal effect

 

 

  1. In a conventional VOR (CVOR), which element of the transmission uses amplitude modulation and which uses frequency modulation?

 

  1. a) The variable-phase and bearing use AM. The ATIS information is FM
  2. b) The variable-phase is AM. The reference is FM
  3. c) The reference and ATIS is AM. The variable-phase is FM
  4. d) The reference is AM. The variable-phase is FM

 

  1. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the radial 340. Which of the following indications should be seen on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator, and what is the position of the TO/FROM indicator?

 

  1. a) 340◦ with the TO flag showing
  2. b) 340◦ with the FROM flag showing
  3. c) 160◦ with the TO flag showing
  4. d) 160◦ with the FROM flag showing

 

  1. If using VOR bearing information beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:

 

  1. a) Interference from thunderstorms
  2. b) Coastal refraction
  3. c) Night effect
  4. d) Interference from other transmitters

 

 

DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT

 

  1. In the DME system:

 

  1. a) The aircraft equipment is called a transponder
  2. b) The receive and transmit frequency is always split by 63 MHz
  3. c) The operation is similar to a primary radar system
  4. d) The channels are referred to as “X” channels paired with VOR’s and “Y” channels paired with ILS localisers

 

  1. The airborne DME equipment will transmit pulse pairs at a comparatively high PRF:

 

  1. a) At all times, except when the panel control “LO” is operated
  2. b) When the distance presented is above 50 NM
  3. c) Whenever a stable signal is being received from the selected ground station
  4. d) When first switched on and after a channel selection

 

  1. System, or beacon, saturation of the DME system:

 

a) Occurs when the aircraft DME set has been in operation for an extended period of time, without being put into the STAND/BY mode

b) Occurs when many aircraft, being at along distance from the DME, are demanding a reply

c) May occur when more than 100 aircraft are demanding replies from a single ground station

d) All 3 answers are correct

 

  1. If a VOR station and a DME station, having different locations, are selected to provide a fix:

 

  1. a) Two sets, with separate frequency control, are required in the aircraft
  2. b) Two positions, being ambiguous, will be presented
  3. c) Two different IDs will have to be checked
  4. d) All 3 answers are correct

 

  1. Using modern DME equipment meant for general navigation use, the accuracy expected is:

 

  1. a) + 2 NM
  2. b) + 5 NM or 0.25% of the slant range, whichever is greater
  3. c) + 2 NM + 0.25% of the slant range, whichever is greater
  4. d) + 2 NM + 3.0% of the slant range

 

  1. How many aircraft will saturate a DME station?

 

  1. a) 200 aircraft
  2. b) 100 aircraft
  3. c) 50 aircraft
  4. d) 2700 aircraft

 

  1. A DME transceiver does not lock on to its own reflections because:

 

  1. a) The PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered
  2. b) It used MTI
  3. c) The interrogation and reply frequencies differ
  4. d) The reflections will all fall within the flyback period

 

  1. An aircraft is passing overhead a DME station at FL 240. What is the DME indication?

 

  1. a) 0 DME
  2. b) 1 DME
  3. c) 4 DME
  4. d) 6 DME

 

INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM

 

 

  1. Consider the following statements on ILS:

 

a) An ILS approach may be flown if the localizer, glide path and marker beacons/DME are operational

b) If the localizer is out of service, an ILS approach with increased decision height (DH) may be carried out

c) ILS is the primary precision approach facility for civil aviation

d) When the pilot is reaching the decision height (DH) he may only continue the approach if both localizer and glide path indications are within one dot from the centre positions

 

  1. Which of the following frequencies does ILS use?

 

a) 112.10 MHz

b) 111.20 MHz

c) 108.45 MHz

d) 109.35 MHz

 

  1. The ILS glidepath transmitter is located:

 

a) No more than 600 m from the localizer transmitter

b) About 150 m upwind from the threshold and about 300 m from the centre line of the runway

c) About 300 m upwind from the threshold and about 150 m from the centre line of the runway

d) As close to the runway threshold as possible without causing an obstruction to aircraft

 

  1. The glidepath transmitter operates on:

 

  1. a) 36 VHF frequencies, paired with localizer frequencies
  2. b) The frequencies 90 and 150 MHz
  3. c) On frequencies found by multiplying the localizer frequency by 2
  4. d) 40 frequencies from 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz

 

  1. If the ILS monitoring equipment senses a shift or changes outside set limits in the basic transmission:

 

  1. a) The Tower Control will inform any inbound aircraft about the inaccuracy
  2. b) The technicians on duty will switch on the stand/by ILS equipment
  3. c) The pilot on ILS approach will be notified by the identification signal disappearing
  4. d) The transmissions on a Cat I ILS will be stopped within 6 seconds

 

 6.  The middle marker is identified by:

 

  1. a) Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 1300 Hz and an amber light
  2. b) Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 800 Hz and an amber light
  3. c) Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 800 Hz and a white light
  4. d) Audible alternate dots and dashes with tone 1300 Hz and a white light

 

  1. What is the width of the localizer from full fly left through centre to full fly right on the cockpit localizer indicator?

 

  1. a) 10◦
  2. b) 20◦
  3. c) 5◦
  4. d) 2.5◦

 

  1. When flying outside the ILS published coverage area, you may expect:

 

  1. a) Incorrect/false signals
  2. b) Correct signals
  3. c) Always fly up signal
  4. d) Always fly down signal

 

MICROWAVE LANDING SYSTEM AND RADAR PRINCIPLES

 

  1. In a primary radar system:

 

a) The aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar

b) All radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site

c) The radar is primarily used for range finding

d) The radar is the primary aid for ATC

 

  1. What governs the theoretical maximum range of primary radar?

 

  1. a) Frequency
  2. b) Wavelength
  3. c) Pulse repetition frequency
  4. d) Pulse width

 

  1. Primary radar operates on the principle of:

 

  1. a) Medium wave technique
  2. b) Pulse technique
  3. c) Doppler technique
  4. d) None of the above

 

  1. When dealing with radar the term PRF is used, PRF is measured in which unit?

 

  1. a) Number of pulses per minute
  2. b) Number of oscillations per second
  3. c) Number of pulses per second
  4. d) Number of oscillations per minute

 

  1. Consider the following statements on primary radar:

 

a) Precipitation will reduce the range of radars operating on low frequencies to larger extent than radars operating on higher frequencies

b) Target shape and size has little influence on the radar maximum range

c) Temperature inversions may increase the maximum detection range

d) The most common radar indicator is called an “A” scope

 

  1. In order to achieve narrow beam width with a radar antenna of a set size:

 

a) The carrier frequency must be low

b) The PRF must be high

c) The pulse length must be kept short

d) The wave-length must be short

  1. In a radar set the purpose of the TR switch is:

 

  1. a) To change the whole set from receive mode to transmit mode
  2. b) To protect the receiver while the pulse is transmitted
  3. c) To set the time reference of the indicator
  4. d) To secure that the Time of Return is registered

 

  1. A radar system has a PRF that is 1200. Calculate the maximum unambiguous range:

 

  1. a) 125 NM
  2. b) 135 NM
  3. c) 68 NM
  4. d) 250 NM

 

  1. Long range surveillance radar may typically use a frequency of :

 

  1. a) 1000 MHz
  2. b) 600 MHz
  3. c) 3000 MHz
  4. d) 10 GHz

 

  1. Why does the aircraft transponder system not respond to its own transmissions when reflected from the ground?

 

a) Different frequencies are used 60 MHz apart

b) Pulse repetition frequency changed

c) The transponder system does not reply to its own reflected signals, but these responses are rejected by the transponder system at the site

d) The aircraft signal is not reflected

 

  1. Which combination of characteristics gives the best resolution in a primary search radar?

 

  1. a) Long pulse length and wide beam
  2. b) Short pulse and wide beam
  3. c) Long pulse and narrow beam
  4. d) Short pulse length and narrow beam

 

  1. The purpose of a radio transmitter is:

 

a) To produce a carrier wave with a constantly changing frequency

b) To produce a radio frequency electric current and deliver this energy to the antenna

c) To produce a carrier wave to the audio frequency output of the transmitter

d) All three answers are correct

 

GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEMS

 

  1. The most favoured type of GPS receiver for use in civil transport aircraft is:

 

  1. a) The Five Satellite Receiver
  2. b) The Multi Channel
  3. c) The Multi Satellite Receiver
  4. d) The Universal Receiver

 

  1. One task of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

 

a) Monitor the status of the satellites

b) Manufacture and launch satellites

c) Manipulate the signals of the selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix (Selective availability SA)

d) Grant and monitor user authorisations

 

  1. The clock in the GPS receiver is corrected to the GPS time system:

 

a) By synchronizing it with the time signal sent by the Master satellite

b) By mathematically adjusting the lines of position from four satellites to a perfect fix

c) Using the average of the time signal received from at least 3 satellites

d) Automatically as soon as signals from 1 satellite is received

 

  1. The GPS satellites will complete an orbit in approximately:

 

  1. a) 6 hours
  2. b) 12 hours
  3. c) 24 hours
  4. d) 21 hours

 

  1. GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation uses:

 

  1. a) Only the 1575 MHz carrier wave and two codes
  2. b) Only the 1227 MHz carrier wave and one code
  3. c) The two carrier waves and one public code
  4. d) Only the 1575 MHz carrier wave and one code

 

 6.  In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite system, receiver clock error:

 

  1. a) Is negligible small because of the great accuracy of the atomic clocks in the satellites
  2. b) Is the biggest part of the total error and cannot be corrected
  3. c) Can be minimized by synchronizing the satellite clock with the receiver clock
  4. d) Is corrected by using signals from four satellites

 

  1. Differential GPS is a system that allows the GPS receiver to correct known errors in the position calculations. Which errors are corrected?

 

  1. a) Receiver clock error and receiver noise
  2. b) Receiver noise
  3. c) Receiver clock error, ephemeris satellite clock and ionosphere delay
  4. d) Ephemeris

 

AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR

 

  1. How many degrees will an AWR be pitched to establish whether a cloud is level with the aircraft, assuming a 5◦ beamwidth?

 

  1. a) + 2.5◦
  2. b) – 2.5◦
  3. c) 0◦
  4. d) 5◦

 

  1. What are the advantages of using a slotted waveguide antenna in AWR?

 

  1. a) More side lobes and concentrates the power in sharper beams
  2. b) Less side lobes but the beams tend to be wider
  3. c) More side lobes but the power is concentrated in sharper beams
  4. d) Less side lobes and concentrates power in sharper beams

 

  1. In AWR that has a colour cathode ray tube, the areas of greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:

 

  1. a) Iso-echo areas which are coloured black
  2. b) Iso-echo areas which are coloured magenta
  3. c) Blank Iso-echo areas where there is no colour
  4. d) Large flashes of flashing red colour

 

  1. The purpose of the contour circuit on a monochrome airborne weather radar is to:

 

a) Indicate severe areas of CAT

b) Show areas with heavy precipitation as dark areas on the display surrounded by bright returns

c) Disable the receiver swept gain function in order to achieve maximum amplification

d) Enable the radar to be used for terrain clearance

 

  1. A frequency of AWR is:

 

  1. a) 9375 MHz
  2. b) 9375 kHz
  3. c) 9375 GHz
  4. d) 93.75 MHz

 

  1. The main task of an AWR is:

 

  1. a) To detect areas of potentially severe turbulence ahead of the aircraft
  2. b) To detect and present a radar picture of clouds with precipitation ahead of the aircraft
  3. c) To detect areas with strong winds ahead of the aircraft
  4. d) To detect and relay to meteorological offices information on the weather in the area ahead of the aircraft
ATPL/ CPL Navigation Questions

FMS

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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