- Pressure Altitude is 27,000 feet, OAT = -35°C, Mach No = 0.45, W/V = 270/85, Track == 200°T. What is drift and groundspeed?
a 18L / 252 knots b 15R / 310 knots
c 17L / 228 knots d 17R / 287 knots
2 G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm. What is time to go?
a 20 minutes b 29 minutes c 2 h 05 m d 2 h 12 m
3 OAT = +35°C, Pressure alt = 5000 feet. What is true alt?
a 4550 feet b 5550 feet c 4290 feet d 5320 feet
4 Course 040°T, TAS 120 knots, Wind speed = 30 knots. From which direction will the wind give the greatest drift?
a 215°T b 230°T c 235°T d 240°T
5 Required course 045°T, W/V = 190/30, FL = 55 @ ISA, Variation = 15°E. CAS = 120 knots. What is mag heading and G/S?
a 052°M 154 b 067°M 154
c 037°M 154 d 037°M 113
6 An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56°N 070°W to 62°N 110°E.
The total distance travelled is?
a 3720 NM b 5420 NM c 1788 NM d 2040 NM
7 You are flying 090°C heading. Deviation is 2W and Variation is 12 E. Your TAS is 160 knots. You are flying the 070 radial outbound from a VOR and you have gone 14 nm in 6 minutes. What is the W/V?
a 158°T /51 b 060°T /50 c 340°T / 25 d 055°T / 25
8 The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:
a Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
b Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.
c Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field.
d Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth’s magnetic field.
9 An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090° (T) for 315 km.
On completion of the flight the longitude will be:
a 002° 10’W b 000° 15’E c 000° 40’E d 005° 15’E
10 What is the definition of magnetic variation?
a The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North.
b The angle between True North and Compass North.
c The angle between Magnetic North and True North.
d The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North.
11 At the magnetic equator:
a Dip is zero b Variation is zero
c Deviation is zero d The isogonal is an agonic line
12 Which of these is a correct statement• about the Earth’s magnetic field:
a It acts as though there is a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada
b The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
c It may be temporary, transient, or permanent.
d It has no effect on aircraft deviation.
13 Where is a compass most effective?
a About midway between the earth’s magnetic poles
b In the region of the magnetic South pole
c In the region of the magnetic North pole
d On the geographic equator
14 The value of variation:
a is zero at the magnetic equator b has a maximum value of 180°
c has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W d cannot exceed 90°
15 You are in the northern hemisphere, heading West, and the aircraft is accelerating. Will a direct reading magnetic compass over-read or under-read? Is the compass indicating a turn to the north or to the south?
Compass Indicating turn to
a over-reads north
b over-reads south
c under-read north
d under-reads south
16 What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading magnetic compass?
a It is lighter
b It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate
c It senses the earth’s magnetic field rather than seeks it. So is more sensitive
d It is not affected by aircraft deviation
17 You are in the Northern hemisphere, heading 135° C on a Direct Reading Magnetic Compass. You turn right in a Rate 1 turn for 30 seconds. Do you roll out on an indicated heading of?
a Greater than 225 b Less than 225
c Equal to 225 d Not possible to determine
18 IRS differs from INS in that it:
a Has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity.
b Has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock.
c Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration.
d Does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down and are not rotated by a VIR feedback loop.
19 The period of validity of an FMS database is:
a 56 days b One week
c 28 days d Varies depending on the area of operational cover.
20 In an IRS:
a The accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilised.
b The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.
c Accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised.
d Accelerometers and platform are both strapped down.
21 When initial position is put into an FMS, the system:
a Rejects initial latitude error, but it will accept longitude error.
b Rejects initial longitude error, but it will accept latitude error.
c Rejects initial latitude or longitude error.
d Cannot detect input errors, and accepts whatever is put in.
22 In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to:
a Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates.
b Overcome laser lock.
c Compensate for transport wander.
d Stabilise the laser frequencies.
23 The FMC position is:
a The average of the IRS positions
b The average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
c Computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
d Computer generated from the radio navigation positions
24 Which of the following can all be stored as five letter waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737- 400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
a Airway names; navaid identifiers; airport names; waypoint code numbers
b Waypoint names; navaid identifiers; runway numbers; airport ICAO identifiers
c Waypoint names; navaid frequencies; runway codes; airport ICAO identifiers
d Waypoint names; navaid positions; airport ICAO identifiers; airport names
25 The following waypoints are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS)
WPT 1: 60N 30W
WPT 2: 60N 20W
WPT 3: 60N 10W
NAVIGATION QUESTIONS For CPL/ ATPL
The inertial navigation is connected to the automatic pilot on the route WP1 – WP2 – WP3. The track change on passing WPT 2 will be approximately:
a a 9° increase b a 4° decrease
c zero d a 9° decrease
26 What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management system (FMS)?
a The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in the wing tip.
b Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS
c Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft’s magnetic heading
d The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
27 In the Boeing 737-400 FMS, the CDU is used to:
a manually initialise the IRS and FMC with dispatch information
b automatically initialise the IRS and FMC with dispatch information
c manually initialise the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information
d manually initialise the Flight Director System, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information
28 What are the levels of message on the Boeing 737-400 FMC?
a Urgent and Routine b Priority and Alerting
c Alert and Advisory d Urgent and Advisory
29 An INS platform is kept at right angles to local gravity by applying corrections for the effects of:
i Aircraft manoeuvres
ii earth rotation
iii transport wander
v gyroscopic inertia
a i, iii and v b ii, iii and v
c ii, iv and v d i, ii, iii and iv
30 When and where are IRS positions updated?
a during all phases of flight
b only on the ground during the alignment procedure
c when the FMS is in IRS ONLY NAV operation
d when the VHF Nav Radios are selected to AUTO
31 An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation system (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems’ CDU s show:
XTK on INS 1 = 0
XTK on INS 2 = 8L
From this information it can be deduced that:
a only inertial navigation No I is drifting
b only inertial navigation No 2 is drifting
c at least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting
d the autopilot is unserviceable in NA V mode
32 Aircraft position determined by radio navigation in the Boeing 737-40 0 FMC is derived from:
a VOR/DME b DME ranges and / or VOR / ADF bearings
c VOR/ADF d VOR / DME and DME / DME
33 On a triple-fit IRS system, present positions on the CDU:
a will only differ if one IRS has been decoupled due to a detected malfunction
b will only differ if an initial input error of aircraft position has been made –
c are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources
d will not differ as the information is averaged
34 Gyro-compassing in an INS:
a is possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
b is not possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
c is not possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
d is possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
35 What are the positions (in the order left to right) on the Boeing 737-400 IRS MSU mode selector?
a OFF STBY ALIGN NAV
b OFF ON ALIGN NAV
c OFF STBY ATT NAV
d OFF ALIGN NAV ATT
36 An aircraft leaves at 0900UTC on a 250 nm journey with a planned groundspeed of 115 knots. After 74 nm the aircraft is 1.5 minutes behind the planned schedule. What is the revised ETA at the destination?
a 1100 b 1110 c 1115 d 1054
37 In an INS /IRS, an azimuth gyro is found to have a drift rate. If t is the time since selecting the MSU from ALIGN to Navigate, is the azimuth gyro heading error
a Proportional to t b Proportional to t2
c Proportional to t/2 d sinusoidal
38 In an INS / IRS, an azimuth gyro is found to have a drift rate. 1ft is the time since selecting the MSU from ALIGN to NAVigate, is the position error
a Proportional to t b Proportional to t2
c Proportional to tI2 d sinusoidal
39 Laser lock is overcome in an IRS system by using a piezo-electric motor which utilises the principle of:
a shake b SAGNAC c dither d vibration
40 A B C
1 30 nm 1 20 nm 1
ATA A is 1010. ETA B is 1030. ETA C is 1043.
ATA B is 1027. What is revised ETA C?
a 1040 b 1043 c 1038 d 1036
41 Isogrivs are lines that connect positions that have
a the same grivation b the same variation
c 0° magnetic dip d the same horizontal magnetic field strength
42 An aircraft at position 6000N 00522W flies 165 km due East. What is the new position?
a 6000N 00820E b 6000N 00224W
c 6000N 00108E d 6000N 00108W
43 An aircraft at latitude 0220N tracks 180°T for 685 kilometres. What is its latitude at the end of the flight?
a 0350S b 0250S c 0210S d 0855S
44 What is the average magnetic course and distance between 6000N 02000W and Sumburgh VOR? (in the exam they gave an attached chart as an Annex – for revision practice use your Jeppesen Manual chart AT(H/L) 1 or 5 AT(HI))
a 095 562
b 095 468
c 105 562
d 105 468
45 What is the average true track and distance between WTD NDB (5211.3N 00705.0W) and FOY NDB (5234.0N 00911.7W) – use your Jeppesen E (LO) l
a 294 76
b 286 76
c 294 81
d 286 81
46 An aircraft is flying TAS 180 knots and tracking 090°T. The W/V is 045/50. How far can the aircraft fly out from its base and return within 1 hour?
a 74 nm b 85 nm c 102 nm d 111 nm
47 You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course of action?
a set heading towards a line feature – coastline, river, or motorway
b turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till yon find-your next check point
d Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
48 An aircraft is at FL140 with an IAS of 210 and a true OAT of -5°C. The wind component is -35 knots. When the aircraft is at 150 nm from a reporting point, ATC request the crew to lose 5 minutes by the time they get to the beacon. How much do they need to reduce IAS?
a 15 knots b 25 knots c 30 knots d 20 knots
49 An aircraft has a TAS300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours. If the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 knots head, what is the distance to the point of safe endurance?
a 1500 nm b 1458 nm c 1544nm d 1622 nm
50 An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and is over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. If the wind component is 60 knots head, what is the distance from the first airfield to the critical point?
a 250 nm b 200 nm c 300 nm d 280 nm
51 X Y Z
1 30 nm 1 20nm 1
ATA X is 1420. ETA Y is 1447. ATA Y is 1450.
What is new ETA Z?
a 1506 b 1512 c 1510 d 1515
Airport elevation is 1000 feet.
QNH is 988 hPa
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
a 320 b 1680 c -320 d 680
53 An aircraft starts at position 0410S 17822W and heads true north for 2950 nm, then turns 90 degrees left, and maintains a rhumb line track for 314 kilometers. What is its final position?
a 5500N 17422W b 4500N 17422W
c 5500N 17738E d 4500N 17738E
54 You are heading 0800T when you get a range and bearing fix from your A WR on a headland at 185 nm 30° left of the nose. What true bearing do you plot on the chart?
a 050 from the headland, using the headland’s meridian
b 050 from the headland, using the aircraft’s meridian
c 230 from the headland, using the headland’s meridian
d 230 from the headland, using the aircraft’s meridian
55 By what amount must you change your rate of descent given a 10 knot increase in headwind on a 3° glideslope?
a 50 feet per minute increase b 30 feet per minute increase
c 50 feet per minute decrease d 30 feet per minute decrease
56 In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a November and February b January and July
c March and September d June and December
57 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds hours time difference is equivalent to which change of longitude?
a 81° 30′ b 78° 15′ c 79° 10′ d 80° 05′
58 The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to the:
a earth’s rotation
b relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
c inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
d gravitational effect of the Sun and the Moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth
59 A Lamberts Conical conformal chart has standard parallels at 63N and 41N. What is the constant of the cone?
a .891 b .788 c .656 d .707
60 On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?
a 1/700,000 b 1/2,015,396
c 1 / 1,296,400 d 1/1,156,600
61 On a Direct Mercator chart, great circles are shown as:
a Curves convex to the nearer pole b Straight lines
c Rhumb lines d Curves concave to the nearer pole
62 The scale on a Lambert’s conformal conic chart
a is constant along a meridian of longitude
b is constant along a parallel of latitude
c varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
d is constant across the whole map
63 Heading is 156°T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130/45. What is your true track?
a 160 b 152 c 104 d 222
64 You are heading 345°M, the variation is 20°E, and you take a radar bearing of 30° left of the nose from an island. What bearing do you plot?
a 160°T b 155°T c 140°T d 180°T
65 Your pressure altitude is FL55, the QNH is 998, and the SAT is + 30C. What is Density Altitude?
a 6980 feet b 7750 feet
c 8620 feet d 10020 feet
66 On a particular take-off, you can accept up to 10 knots tailwind. The runway QDM is 047, the variation is l7°E and the A TIS gives the wind direction as 210. What is the maximum wind strength you can accept?
a 18 knots b 11 knots c 8 knots d 4 knots
67 The agonic line:
a is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
b follows the geographic equator
c is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
d Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe and the other through the USA
68 On a 12% glide slope, your groundspeed is 540 knots. What is your rate of descent?
a 6550 feet/min b 4820 feet/min
c 8740 feet/min d 3120 feet/min
69 At 65 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 in order to arrive over the VOR at FL 100. Your mean groundspeed in the descent is 240 knots. What rate of descent is required?
a 1420 feet/min b 1630 feet/mm
c 1270 feet/min d 1830 feet/min
70 In which month does aphelion occur?
a January b March c July d November
71 The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in?
a any plane b the horizontal plane
c the vertical plane d the vertical and horizontal plane
72 What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day?
a 68°N b 66°N c 62°N d 72°N
73 The pressure alt is 29000 feet and the SAT is -55°C. What is density altitude?
a 27500 feet b 26000 feet
c 30000 feet d 31000 feet
74 The distance from A to B is 2368 nautical miles. If outbound groundspeed in 365 knots and homebound groundspeed is 480 knots and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes, what is the time to the PNR?
a 290 minutes b 209 minutes
c 219 minutes d 190 minutes
75 What is the UTC time of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada (49N 123 30W) on the 6th December? (In the exam, tables were supplied. The answers given below are based on the tables in your Gen Nav notes).
a 2324 UTC b 0724 UTC
c 1552 UTC d 0738 UTC
76 How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?
a Expands as the secant 2 (2 co-latitude)
b Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c Correct on the standard parallels, expands outside them, contracts within them
d Expands as the secant of the EIW great circle distance
77 You are on ILS 3-degree glideslope which passes over the runway threshold at 50 feet. Your DME range is 25 nm from the threshold. What is your height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use the I in 60 rule and 6000feet = 1 nautical mile)
a 8010 feet b 7450 feet
c 6450 feet d 7550 feet
78 At 1200 Standard Time on the 10th July in Queensland, Australia, what is the Standard Time in Hawaii, USA?
a 1200 ST 10 July b 1000 ST 10 July
c 1600 ST 09 July d 0200 ST 10 July
79 You are flying at a True Mach No of .82 in a SAT of -45°C. At 1000 hours you are 100 nm from the POL DME and your ETA at POL is 1012. ATC ask you to slow down to be at POL at 1016. What should your new TMN be if you reduce speed at 100 nm distances to go?
a M.76 b M.72 c M 68 d M 61
80 The relative bearing to a beacon is 270(R). Three minutes later, at a groundspeed of 180 knots, it has changed to 225°R. What was the distance of the closest point of approach of the aircraft to the beacon?
a 45 nm b 18 nm c 9 nm d 3 nm
81 Groundspeed is 540 knots. 72 nm to go. What is time to go?
a 8 mins b 9 mins c 18 mins d 12 mins
82 An aircraft at position 2700N 17000W travels 3000 km on a track of 180°T, then 3000 km on a track of 090°T, then 3000 km on a track of 000°T, then 3000 km on a track of 270°T. What is its final position?
a 2700N 17000W b 0000N/S 17000W
c 2700N 17318W d 2700N 14300W
83 An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:
a 920 ft/min b 890 ft/min
c 860 ft/min d 960 ft/min
84 You are homing to overhead a VORTAC and will descend from 7500 QNH to be 1000 AMSL by 6 nm DME. Your groundspeed is 156 knots and the ROD will be 800 feet/min. At what range from the VORTAC do you commence the descent?
a 27.1 nm b 15.8 nm c 11.7 nm d 30.2 nm
85 A Rhumb line is:
a the vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
b a straight line on a Lambert’s conformal chart
c a line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle
d the shortest distance between two points on the Earth’s surface
86 You fly from 49N to 58N along the 180 E/W meridian. What is the distance in kilometres?
a 540 km b 804 km c 1222 km d 1000 km
87 On a particular Direct Mercator wall chart, the 180°W to 180°E parallel of latitude at 53N is 133 cm long. What is the scale of the chart at 30S?
a 1: 3,000,000 b 1: 18,000,000
c 1: 21,000,000 d 1: 27,000,000
88 What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the Sun can be vertically overhead?
a 23½ ° b 66 ½ ° c 45° d 90°
89 Track = 090 (T), T AS = 460 knots, W /V = 360 (T) /100,
Variation = 10 E, Deviation = -2.
What is compass heading and groundspeed?
a 079° 470 knots b 069° 450 knots
c 068° 460 knots d 070° 455 knots
90 The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as:
a deviation b variation
c alignment error d dip
91 An aircraft is at 10° N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is:
a 10° S b 02°N
c 02° S d 00°N/S
92 Given that:
A is N55° E/W 000°
B is N54° E 010°,
If the true great circle track from A to B is 100° T, what is the true Rhumb Line track at A?
a 096° b 107°
c 104° d 100°
93 The circumference of the Earth is approximately:
a 43200 nm b 10800 nm
c 21600 nm d 5400 nm
94 The angle between the plane of the Equator and the plane of the Ecliptic is:
a 66.5° b 23.5°
c 25.3° d 65.6°
95 Position A is at 70S 030W, position B is 70S 060E. What is the Great Circle track of B from A measured at A?
a 132° T b 048° T
c 090° T d 228° T
96 The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:
a Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease
97 Isogonal lines converge as follows:
a At the North Magnetic Pole
b At the North and South Magnetic and Geographical Poles
c At the North and South Magnetic Poles
d At the Magnetic equator.
98 Position A is 55N 30W. Position B is 54N 20W. The Great Circle track from A to B, measured at A, is 100°T. What is the Rhumb line bearing from A to B?
a 104°T b 090°T c 100°T d 284°T
99 An aircraft departs a point 0400N 17000W and flies 600 nm South, followed by 600 nm East, then 600 nm North, then 600 nm West. What is its final position?
a 0400N 17000W b 0600S 17000W
c 0400N 169° 58.1 ‘W d 0400N 170° 01.8’W
100 Why are the detector units of slaved gyro compasses usually located in the aircraft wingtips?
a With one detector unit in each wingtip, compass deviations are cancelled out.
b To isolate the detector unit from the aircraft deviation sources.
c To isolate the detector unit from the Earth’s magnetic field.
d To reduce turning and acceleration errors.
101 At 1000 hours an aircraft is on the 310 radial from a VOR/DME, at 10 nautical miles range. At 1010 the radial and range are 040/10 nm. What is the aircraft’s track and groundspeed?
a 0800 / 85 knots b 0850 / 85 knots
c 0800 / 80 knots d 0850 / 90 knots
102 A straight line is drawn on a North Polar Stereographic chart joining Point A (7000N 06000W) to Point B (7000N 06000E). What is the initial track direction (going eastwards) of the line at A ?
a 090° T b 030° T c 120° T d 330° T
103 What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle?
a 66° b 180° c 90° d 45°
Magnetic heading 311°
Drift is 10° left
Relative bearing of NDB 270
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
a 221° b 208° c 211° d 180° .
105 What is the Standard Time in Hawaii when it is 0600 ST on the 16th July in Queensland, Australia?
a 1100 ST on the 15th b 2000 ST on the 15th
c 1100 ST on the 16th d 1000 ST on the 17th
106 What is the weight in kilogrammes of 380 US Gallons at a Specific Gravity of 0.78?
a 1123 b 2470 c 5434 d 543
107 You leave A to fly to B, 475 nm away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are 190 nm from A. What groundspeed is required to arrive on time at B?
a 317 knots b 330 knots c 342 knots d 360 knots
108 Which of the following differences in latitude will give the biggest difference in the initial Great Circle track and the mean Great Circle track between two points separated by 10° change of longitude?
a 60N and 60S b 60N and 55N
c 30S and 30N d 30S and 25S
109 An aircraft is at 5530N 03613W, where the variation is 15W. It is tuned to a VOR located at 5330N 03613W, where the variation is 12W. What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
a 348 b 012 c 165 d 015
110 The wind velocity is 359/25. An aircraft is heading 180 at a TAS of 198 knots. (All directions are True). What is its track and groundspeed?
a 180 223 b 179 220
c 180 220 d 179 223
111 An aircraft’s compass must be swung:
a If the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times.
b If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering.
c Every maintenance inspection
d After a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude.
112 Civil Twilight occurs between:
a Sunset and 6° below the horizon b 6° and 12° below the horizon
c 12° and 18° below the horizon d Sunrise and sunset
113 What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?
a 0° b 90° c 180° d 64°
114 What is a line of equal magnetic variation?
a An isocline b An isogonal
c An isogriv d An isovar
115 What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?
a Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun
b Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
c Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year
d Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year
116 What is the Rhumb Line track from A (4500N 01000W) to B (4830N 01500W)?
a 315° T b 330° T c 215° T d 150° T
117 What is the effect on the Mach number and T AS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?
a Mach number decreases; TAS decreases
b Mach number increases; TAS remains constant
c Mach number increases; TAS increases
d Mach number remains constant; TAS increases
118 The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a using long magnets
b keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires
c pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
d using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
119 An island is observed to be 15° to the left.
The aircraft heading is 120° (M), variation 17° (W).
The bearing (° T) from the aircraft to the island is:
a 268 b 302 c 088 d 122
120 An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a groundspeed of 240 knots. At what groundspeed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the Equator to fly once round the Earth in the same journey time?
a 600 knots b 240 knots
c 480 knots d 120 knots
121 If it is 0700 hours Standard Time in Kuwait, what is the Standard Time in Algeria?
a 0500 hours b 0900 hours
c 1200 hours d 0300 hours
122 If variation is West; then:
a True North is West of Magnetic North
b Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c True North is East of Magnetic North
d Magnetic North is West of Compass North
123 At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur?
a 0° b 45° c 60° d 90°
124 At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
a Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox b Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
c Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice d Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
125 Given: Aircraft height = 2500 feet, ILS GP angle = 3°, at what approximate distance from the threshold can you expect to intercept the glide-path?
a 8.0 nm b 14.5 nm c 13.1 nm d 7.0 nm
126 Convert 70 metres/see into knots.
a 136 knots b 36 knots c 146 knots d 54 knots
127 In which of the following projections does a plane surface touch the Reduced Earth at one of the Poles?
a Gnomic b Stereo graphic c Lambert’s d Direct Mercator
128 Which of the following conversions from True to Compass is the correct one?
T V M D C
a 130 2W 132 -1 131
b 130 2E 132 -1 133
c 130 2W 132 -1 133
d 130 2E 132 -1 133
129 Your position is 5833N 17400W. You fly exactly 6 nm eastwards. What is your new position?
a 5833N 17411.5W b 5833N 17355W
c 5833N 17340W d 5833N 17348.5W
130 TAS = 240 knots. Track is 180°T. The relative bearing from an NDB is 315R at 1410. At 1420 the bearing has changed to 270R. What is your distance from the NDB at 1420?
a 40 nm b 50 nm c 60 nm d 70 nm
True Track = 352
Variation = 11W
Deviation = -5
Drift = 10 R
What is Heading (C?
a 078 C b 346 C c 358 C d 025 C
132 What is the definition of EAT?
a Estimated on-blocks arrival time b Estimated time overhead the destination airfield
c Estimated initial approach fix time d Estimated final approach fix time
133 Given that the value of ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth, measured at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 Km, what is the semi-major axis of the Earth measured at the axis of the Poles?
a 6399.9 Km b 6356.9 Km
c 6378.4 Km d 6367.0 Km
134 On a chart, meridians at 43N are shown every 10 degrees apart. This is shown on the chart by a distance of 14 cm. What is the scale?
a 1: 2,000,000 b 1: 4,000,000
c 1: 5,000,000 d 1: 6,000,000
135 On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the?
a Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical b meridian of tangency
c datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it. d prime meridian and the equator.
136 How do Rhumb lines (with the exception of meridians) appear on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a concave to the nearer pole b convex to the nearer pole
c an ellipse round the pole d straight lines
137 What is the value of convergence on a polar stereographic chart?
a 0 b 1.0 c 0.866 d 0.5
138 At 0422 you are 185 nm from a VOR at FL 370. You need to descend at a mean descent rate of 1800’/min to be at FL 80 overhead the VOR. Your groundspeed in the level cruise is currently 320 knots. In the descent your mean G/S will be 232 knots. What is the latest time to commence descent?
a 0437 b 0441 c 0444 d 0451
139 Given: Heading 165(M), Variation 25W, Drift 10° R, G/S 360 knots. At ‘A’ your relative bearing to an NDB is 325R. Five minutes later, at ‘B’, the relative bearing is 280R. What is the True Bearing and Distance from ‘B’ to the NDB?
a 060°T 40nm b 105°T 30nm
c 060°T 30nm d 105°T 40nm
140 What is the diameter of the Earth?
a 40000 km b 12732 km
c 21600 km d 6366 km.
141 An aircraft on the Equator accelerates whilst traveling westwards. What will be the effect on a direct reading compass?
a Indicates an increase in heading b No change
c Indicates a decrease in heading d Indicates an apparent turn to the North
142 An aircraft flies 100 st mile in 20 minutes. How long does it take to fly 215 nm?
a 50 mins b 37 mins
c 57 mins d 42 mins
143 What is the duration of civil twilight?
a From the moment when the centre of the sun is on the sensible horizon until the centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
b From the moment when the tip of the sun disappears below the sensible horizon until the centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
c From the moment when the centre of the sun is on the visual horizon until the centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
d From the moment when the tip of the sun disappears below the visual horizon until the centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
144 What is the shortest distance between Point ‘A’ (3543N 00841E) arid Point ‘B’ (5417N 17119W)?
a 5400 nm b 6318 nm
c 6557 nm d 6000 nm
145 Scale on a Lambert conformal chart is:
a constant along a line of latitude b constant along a line of longitude
c constant everywhere d correct at the parallel of origin
146 Given: TAS = 375 Trk = 335°T W/V=340°T/50
What is heading and Groundspeed?
a 335°T 322 b 335°T 318
c 336°T 326 d 333°T 326
147 Lines of latitude on a chart are always:
a Great Circles b Small Circles except for the Equator
c Vertices d Meridians
148 On a Lambert chart, the constant of the cone is .78585. What is the parallel of tangency?
a 51°02′ b 51°36′ c 51°15′ d 51°48′
149 On which chart projection is it not possible to show the North Pole?
a Direct Mercator b Lamberts
c Transverse Mercator d Polar Stereographic
150 You are at FL 150 and the SAT is -5°C. You are over an airport with an elevation of 720 feet.
The QNH is 1003. Assume 27 feet = 1HPa.
What is your true height?
a 14300 feet b 15300 feet
c 14700 feet d 15600 feet
151 What is the formula for Conversion Angle?
a Change of longitude x Sine latitude
b Change of longitude x ½ Sine mean longitude
c Change of longitude x ½ Sine mean latitude
d Change of longitude x Cosine latitude
152 On the Polar Stereographic projection, a Great Circle appears as:
a a straight line
b a curve which becomes more near to a straight line as the latitude increases
c a curve convex to the nearer pole
d a curve which can be concave or convex to the nearer pole, depending on the latitude
153 An aircraft departs Guam (13N 145E) at 2300 Standard Time on 30th April. Flight Time to Los Angeles, California, USA (34N 118W) is 11 hours 15 minutes. What is the California Standard Time of arrival? Assume Summer Time is being kept.
a 1015 ST 30 Apr b 1715 ST 01 May
c 1015 ST 01 May d 1715 ST 30 Apr
(NB the Standard time Difference for Guam is 10 hours – not given in our version of the Air Almanac, but the right page will be available in the exam).
154 What rate of descent is required to maintain a 3.5° glideslope at a groundspeed of 150 knots?
a 850 fpm b 800 fpm c 600 fpm d 875 fpm
155 What is the meaning of the term ‘standard time’?
a It is another term for UTC
b It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
c It is an expression for local mean time.
d It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.
156 On 27 Feb at 52°S 040″E sunrise is a 0243UTC. On the same day at 52°S 035°W the time of sunrise is?
a 0743 UTC b 0243 UTC c 2143 UTC d 0543 UTC.
157 A compass swing is performed in order to correct for?
a acceleration b deviation c variation d aperiodicity
158 Isogonals are lines of equal:
a compass deviation b magnetic variation
c wind velocity d pressure
159 On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:
a small circle concave to the nearer pole b straight line
c curve convex to the nearer pole d spiral curve
IAS 120 kt
What is the TAS?
a 141 kt b 102 kt c 120 kt d 132 kt
161 The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM.
To calculate compass heading the pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead of 2°W. Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint?
a 14 NM b 7 NM c 0 NM d 21 NM
True Course 300°
Calculate the compass heading.
a 322° b 306° c 278° d 294°
True track 180°
Compass Heading 195°
Calculate the variation.
a 21°W b 25°W c 5°W d 9°W
164 Given the following:
Magnetic heading: 060°
Magnetic variation: 8°W
Drift angle: 4° right
What is the true track?
a 064° b 056° c 072° d 048°
165 An aircraft was over ‘Q’ at 1320 hours flying direct to ‘R’.
Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 016 NM
True air speed 480 knots
Mean wind component ‘out’ -90 kt
Mean wind component ‘back’ +75 kt
Safe endurance 10:00 HR
The distance from ‘Q’ to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
a 2370 NM b 2290 NM c 1510 NM d 1310 NM
Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information:
TAS 360 kt
W/V 330°/80 kt
Compass heading 237°
Deviation on this heading -5°
What is the average ground speed for this leg?
a 403 kt b 354 kt c 373 kt d 360 kt
167 When visually navigating, you cross 2 parallel roads approximately at right angles to track, about 1 nm apart. The time difference between crossing these roads can be used to derive:
a track b drift c groundspeed d heading
168 The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60S 165W) and B (60S 177E) at the place of departure A, is?
a 9° b 15.6° c 5.2° d 7.8°
169 Given: Runway direction 083° (M), Surface W/V 035/35kt. Calculate the effective headwind component.
a 24 kt b 27 kt c 31 kt d 34 kt
170 Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limit of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60°. Calculate the maximum and minimum allowable wind speeds.
a 20 kt and 40 kt b 15 kt and 43 kt
c 12 kt and 38 kt d 18 kt and 50 kt
171 From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is:
a proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
b inversely proportional to the total distance to go
c inversely proportional to ground speed back
d inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
Appendix C to Gen Nav Feedback