Flight Performance and Planning (Questions)



1 Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
A improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
B decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
C decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.

D improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
2 Using the Landing Diagram, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions:
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
O.A.T.: 5°C
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down
A 1400 ft
B 880 ft
C 1550 ft
D 1020 ft

3 Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
A High temperature and high relative humidity
B Low temperature and high relative humidity
C High temperature and low relative humidity
D Low temperature and low relative humidity

4 If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
A 20 %
B 10 %
C 5 %
D 15 %

5 The absolute ceiling
A can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed
B is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
C is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
D is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%

6 The optimum altitude A increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
B decreases as mass decreases.
C is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
D is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

7 Which of the following statements is correct ?
A A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
B If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.
C A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
D An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.

8 Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
A Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
B In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
C Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
D Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.

9 How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
A VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
B VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
C VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
D VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

10 Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
A 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
B On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
C The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
D The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.

11 Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
A The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.
B The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
C Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
D A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.

12 What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
A The “1.3G” altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
B IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
C The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
D The lift coefficient increases.

13 Long range cruise is selected as
A the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.
B the speed for best economy.
C the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
D specific range with tailwind.

14 ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
A 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
B 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
C 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
D 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.

15 An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
A Increases in the first part; decreases in the second.
B Increases in the first part; is constant in the second.
C Decreases in the first part; increases in the second.
D Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second.

16 Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
A Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
B Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
C Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
D Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.



Flight Performance and Planning Questions




























1. In order to accelerate in the climb you have to lower the nose. As you do that both the angle and rate of climb reduce which would make answer (b) correct. As is so often the case, there is another possible interpretation. The question could mean ‘Once acceleration has taken place and a new speed is established…’ In this case a new speed closer to VX would necessarily mean
a climb angle closer to the optimum and make answer (a) correct. Unfortunately, answer (d) would also be correct. Because the second interpretation gives two correct answers and following some heavy hints from the examiners it seems that the intended correct answer is (b).

2. The question paper does not provide either the correct graph or the correct answers. An attempt to solve it would be to use Fig 2.4 in CAP 698. Graphical solution is 1350ft gross. Multiply this by the regulatory factor of 1.43 the net landing distance = 1935ft

3. Take-off and climb performance will be adversely affected if the thrust reduces and this will occur when the air is thinner, at high temperatures, high altitudes and high humidities. Answer A.

4. Answer D,

5. Answer B

6. Answer A

7. There are two possible answers again, A is wrong because clearway isn’t load bearing. B is correct because one of the TORR calculations, for a continued take-off following an engine failure at the wet runway VEF, has the aircraft leaving the runway at the end of the runway. C is a correct definition of stopway and D is wrong, the ’underrun’ probably means the undershoot, at the approach end of the runway. Answer B or C, probably C

8. The primary reason for reducing thrust is to increase engine life, it doesn’t save fuel and it can actually increase the noise footprint as the aircraft is closer to the ground. C is nearly right, it should say that reduced thrust can be used when the actual TOM is less than the FLL TOM, and the Climb limited TOM and the obstacle limited TOM. Probably Answer C.
As a reminder, according to the CAP it may not be used on the B737 when:
• Operating from contaminated runways
• Anti-skid is unserviceable
• Reverse thrust is unserviceable
• Increased V2 procedures are used
• Power Management Computer is off
In addition, but not for the exams, the use of reduced thrust is often prohibited when
• The primary thrust setting instrument is unserviceable
• There is windshear in the vicinity.

9. When pressure altitude increases the thinner air leads to lower engine thrust. The lower asymmetric thrust means the aircraft is easier to control engine out which means VMCA is reduced. Answer A.
Conversely, VMCA and VMCG increase as air density increases. They are highest at low pressure altitudes, low temperatures and low humidity because that is where asymmetric thrust is greatest. VMCG must give control within 30ft of the centreline using rudder alone and VMCA control is within 20º of heading with 5º of bank towards the live engine.

10. Answer C

11. The max bank angle is 15º, either the obstacle limited or the climb limited mass can be lower, wind speed is very significant but tailwind take-offs are allowed. Answer D.

12. A is rubbish. In a constant Mach climb both IAS and TAS reduce so B and C are wrong. Reducing IAS leads to an increasing angle of attack and increasing lift co-efficient. Answer D

13. Answer A

14. Answer C

15. The shallowest descent angle in the glide occurs at VMD.

Flight Performance and Planning Questions













In a constant Mach descent the IAS is increasing away from VMD so the descent angle increases. As it switches to a constant IAS descent the descent angle stays constant. Answer B

16. Answer B

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