AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL AND GENERAL Questions (Part 2) 2


COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL GENERAL  Questions

Below you will find Part 2 of Technical General Questions

Technical General Questions

  1. When an aircraft is inverted in flight, fuel starvation of the engine may be prevented by:
  1. The carburettor balance duct.
  2. The power jet.
  3. A stand tube.
  1. Carburettor anti-icing is normally provided by:
  1. Hot air from the cooling system.
  2. Hot oil from the engine lubrication system.
  3. Spray mat heater elements.
  1. The supercharger is normally positioned:
  1. In the exhaust manifold.
  2. Before the carburettor.
  3. Between the carburettor and the inlet manifold.
  1. The impeller of a supercharger rotates:
  1. Twice the speed of the engine.
  2. Half the speed of the engine crankshaft.
  3. Nine to ten times the speed of the engine crankshaft.
  1. The supercharger is normally located:
  1. At the side of the engine.
  2. At the rear of the engine.
  3. At the front of the engine.
  1. Manifold boost pressure is:
  1. The indicated pressure in the inlet manifold between the impeller and the inlet valves.
  2. The indicated pressure in the inlet prior to the carburettor.
  3. The pressure indicated in the supercharger.
  1. The turbocharger impeller is situated:
  1. Prior to the fuel injector.
  2. After the carburettor.
  3. In the exhaust system.
  1. Turbocharger main bearings are lubricated by:
  1. The engine hydraulic system.
  2. The engine lubrication system.
  3. Grease packs.
  1. The turbocharger impeller is:
  1. Driven by intake ram air.
  2. Driven by exhaust gases.
  3. Mounted on the same shaft as the turbine.
  1. If landing gear is lowered:
  1. Total drag increases, and Vmd is increased.
  2. Total drag increases, and Vmd is decreased.
  3. Total drag decreases, and Vmd is decreased.
  1. For a constant weight, Vmd (IAS):
  1. Increase as altitude increases.
  2. Decrease as altitude increases.
  3. Remain constant as altitude increases.
  1. For an aircraft flying at a speed above Vmd:
  1. A speed increase causes a drag increase, which will cause a deceleration.
  2. A speed increase causes a drag decreases causing further acceleration.
  3. A speed increase causes a drag increase causing acceleration.
  1. If weight is increased the stalling angle of attack is:
  1. Increased
  2. Decreased
  3. The same.
  1. If an aircraft is flying close to the stall, and ailerons are operated:
  1. A stall could occur on the wing with the down aileron.
  2. A stall could occur on the wing with the up aileron.
  3. There would be no effect on stalling.
  1. The effect of increasing aspect ratio is to:
  1. Increase the maximum lift/drag ratio.
  2. Decrease the maximum lift/drag ratio.
  3. Not affect the maximum lift/drag ratio.
  1. On a highly tapered without wing twist the stall will commence:
  1. At the tip.
  2. At the centre of the span.
  3. At the root.

 

 

  1. On an untapered wing without twist the downwash.
  1. Increases from root to tip.
  2. Increases from tip to root.
  3. Is constant across the span.
  1. When flaps are lowered the spanwise flow on the upper surface of the wing:
  1. Does not change.
  2. Increases towards the tip.
  3. Increases towards the root.
  1. If the flaps are lowered asymmetrically, this will cause:
  1. A nose-up pitching moment.
  2. A nose-down pitching moment.
  3. A rolling moment.
  1. As the elevator is lowered:
  1. The tailplane download is increased.
  2. The tailplane download is reduced.
  3. The tailplane upload is reduced.
  1. If the control hinge is too far back from the control surface leading edge:
  1. Control effectiveness will be reduced.
  2. Control will be too heavy.
  3. Control Centre of Pressure may move ahead of the hinge and cause overbalance.
  1. Controls are mass balanced in order to:
  1. Eliminate control flutter.
  2. Aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls.
  3. Provide equal control forces on all three controls.
  1. When the rudder is moved to the right, the force acting on the fin:
  1. Gives a yawing moment but no rolling moment.
  2. Gives a rolling moment to the left.
  3. Gives a rolling moment to the right.
  1. Lift spoilers on the upper wing surface may be used:
  1. To augment the lift.
  2. As lift dumpers during the landing run.
  3. To reduce buffet at high speed.

 

Technical General Questions

  1. The higher speed of the upper wing in a steady banked turn causes it to have more lift than the lower wing. This may be compensated for by:
  1. Use of the rudder control.
  2. Operating the ailerons in the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached.
  3. Increasing the nose up pitch by using the elevators.
  1. To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be:
  1. Near to the stalling speed.
  2. As high as possible within Vne limits.
  3. The one that gives the highest Lift/Drag ratio.
  1. As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS:
  1. Decreases because drag increases and thrust decreases.
  2. Increases because drag decreases and thrust is constant.
  3. Decreases because thrust deceases and drag is constant.
  1. As altitude increases the excess power available:
  1. Decreases because the power available decreases and power required is constant.
  2. Increases because the power required decreases and power available is constant.
  3. Decreases because the power available decreases and power required increases.
  1. As bank angle is increased in a level turn at a constant IAS, the load factor will:
  1. Remain the same.
  2. Increase
  3. Decrease
  1. In a level turn at a constant IAS:
  1. The drag will be greater than in level flight because of the increased induced drag.
  2. The drag will be the same as in level flight because the IAS is the same.
  3. The drag will be less than in level flight because the lift is less.
  1. For a level turn a constant IAS if the radius of turn is decreased, the bank angle and load factor will:
  1. Increase
  2. Decrease
  3. Remain the same.
  1. To counteract a right wing low tendency, a fixed tab on the port aileron would:
  1. Be moved up causing the left aileron to come up.
  2. Be moved down causing the left aileron to come up.
  3. Be moved up causing the right aileron to come down.
  1. Down movement of the elevator trimming tab will:
  1. Make the aircraft nose heavy.
  2. Overcome a tendency to fly nose heavy.
  3. Overcome a tendency to fly tail heavy.
  1. To achieve the same degree of longitudinal trim, the trim drag:
  1. Would be higher for a variable incidence tailplane than for an elevator.
  2. Will be the same for both variable incidence tailplane and an elevator.
  3. From an elevator would be higher, than from a variable incidence tailplane.
  1. The thrust required to fly at a given IAS:
  1. Decreases as altitude increases.
  2. Is unaffected by altitude.
  3. Increases as altitude increases.
  1. The speed at which the power required is a minimum is:
  1. Minimum drag speed Vmd.
  2. Above Vmd.
  3. Below Vmd.
  1. When the C of G is close to the forward limit:
  1. Very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch.
  2. Longitudinal stability is reduced.
  3. Larger stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable.
  1. In a sideslip:
  1. The dihedral will cause a rolling moment, which reduces the sideslip.
  2. The fin will cause a rolling moment, which increases the sideslip.
  3. The dihedral will cause a yawing moment, which reduces the sideslip.
  1. With increase in altitude the damping in roll:
  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remains the same.
  1. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:
  1. Depends on forward speed only.
  2. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed.
  3. Depends on engine rotational speed only.
  1. The blade angle of a fixed pitch propeller would be set to give the optimum angle:
  1. During take-off.
  2. During cruise.
  3. During landing.
  1. If an aircraft is stable, this means that:
  1. It is a state of balance.
  2. If it is displaced it will return to its original position without any correction by the pilot.
  3. If it is displaced it must be returned to its original position by the pilot operating the controls.
  1. For an aircraft which is neutrally stable in roll, following a wing drop:
  1. The wing would tend to return to the level position.
  2. The wing would continue to drop.
  3. The wing would remain in its displaced position.
  1. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:
  1. Statically and dynamically unstable.
  2. Statically stable but dynamically unstable.
  3. Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
  1. If the aircraft has nose-up pitch displacement, the effective angle of attack of the tail plane:
  1. Remains the same.
  2. Changes and causes the tailplane to apply a restoring moment.
  3. Will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator selection.
  1. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C of G:
  1. Must always coincide with the C of P.
  2. Must be forward of the Neutral Point.
  3. Must be aft of the Neutral Point.
  1. Wing dihedral gives a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:
  1. On the down going wing when the aircraft rolls.
  2. On the lower wing when the aircraft sideslips.
  3. On the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked altitude.
  1. A high wing configuration gives:
  1. More lateral stability than a low wing.
  2. Less lateral stability than a low wing.
  3. The same lateral stability as a low wing.
  1. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates for a long time with only small reductions of amplitude on each oscillation. It would be said to have:
  1. Low damping.
  2. High damping.
  3. Negative damping.
  1. With increase in altitude the damping in roll:
  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remains the same.
  1. The presence of the fuselage in an aircraft with a high wing during a sideslip:
  1. Increases the lift on the lower wing and decreases the lift on the upper wing thus creating a stabilising moment.
  2. Increases the lift on both wings thus creating a stabilising moment.
  3. Decreases the lift on the lower wing and increases the lift on the upper wing thus creating a destabilising moment.
  1. If an aircraft is yawed to large angle of sideslip:
  1. Directional stability will be lost.
  2. If the sideslip angle is too large the fin may stall and directional stability will be decreased.
  3. The rudder will always have to be used to return the aircraft to its original position.
  1. Increasing the size of the fin:
  1. Reduces lateral stability.
  2. Increases longitudinal stability and directional control.
  3. Increases the size of the keel surface giving increased directional stability.
  1. Pendulum stability is a property possessed by:
  1. Aircraft with swept back wings.
  2. Aircraft with high wing configuration.
  3. Aircraft with low wing configuration.
  1. An aircraft with a Dutch roll instability will:
  1. Go into a spiral dive following a lateral disturbance.
  2. Experience simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw.
  3. Experience oscillation in pitch.
  1. Dutch roll may be prevented by:
  1. Having the wings swept back.
  2. Reducing the size of the fin.
  3. Fitting yaw dampers.
  1. An aircraft is yawed to starboard and the rudder is then centralized. If it then yaws to port it is:
  1. Directionally neutrally stable.
  2. Directionally statically stable.
  3. Directionally dynamically stable.
  1. Reducing the static margin will:
  1. Increase static stability.
  2. Reduce static stability.
  3. Not affect static stability.
  1. Reducing the static margin will result in:
  1. Reduction of the stick forces in pitch.
  2. Increase the stick forces in pitch.
  3. The forces will remain unaffected because of balance tab effects.
  1. Reducing the static margin will result in:
  1. Larger elevator angles to trim.
  2. Lesser elevator angles to trim.
  3. Elevator angles to trim are not affected.
  1. Increasing the static margin will result in:
  1. Less trim drag.
  2. Lower fuel consumption.
  3. Heavier stick forces in pitch.
  1. Increasing the static margin will result in:
  1. Decrease in lateral stability.
  2. Increase in lateral stability.
  3. Higher stalling speed.
  1. Increasing the static margin will normally result in:
  1. Greater stability in yaw.
  2. Lower stability in yaw.
  3. Stability in yaw will not be affected.
  1. If an aircraft has a very tall fin:
  1. Oscillatory stability will be reduced.
  2. Lateral stability will be reduced.
  3. Oscillatory stability will be increased.
  1. A large fin will result in:
  1. Greater spiral stability.
  2. Lower lateral stability.
  3. Lower spiral stability.
  1. If an aircraft experience a divergence it is:
  1. Statically unstable.
  2. Statically and dynamically unstable.
  3. Dynamically unstable.
  1. As the speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is increased, normally:
  1. The centre of pressure will move forward.
  2. The centre of pressure will remain stationary.
  3. The centre of pressure will move aft.
  1. With the C of G on the aft limit, compared with the forward limit, the wing lift required for level flight will be:
  1. Greater
  2. The same value.
  3. Less
  1. At a given weight, for level flight, lift is normally held constant with changes in speed by.
  1. The trailing edge flaps.
  2. Varying the deflection of the leading edge.
  3. Varying the angle of attack.
  1. The longitudinal axis of an aircraft will:
  1. Be below the centre of gravity.
  2. Be above the centre of gravity.
  3. Pass through the centre of gravity.
  1. The lift of a wing will increase with an increase in:
  1. The temperature of the atmosphere.
  2. The pressure of the atmosphere.
  3. The humidity of the atmosphere.
  1. The drag of an aircraft will increase with:
  1. Increase in air temperature.
  2. Decrease in air density.
  3. Increase in air pressure.
  1. The trim drag of a variable incidence tailplane compared with the trim drag of a fixed tailplane and elevator will be:
  1. More
  2. The same.
  3. Less
  1. On an aircraft fitted with differential aileron control:
  1. The down going aileron moves through a greater range of movement than the up going aileron.
  2. The up going aileron moves through a greater range of movement than the down going aileron.
  3. Both ailerons will move through the same distance of travel.
  1. Aileron control surface flutter is normally avoided by:
  1. The fitment of mass balance.
  2. Aerodynamic horn balance.
  3. Fitting negative balance tabs.
  1. Spanwise movement of the airflow in flight may be reduced by:
  1. Leading edge slats.
  2. Wing fences.
  3. Anhedral
  1. A spoiler is normally used to:
  1. Control the aircraft about the longitudinal axis.
  2. Control the aircraft in both the lateral and longitudinal planes.
  3. Control the aircraft about the lateral axis.
  1. On an aircraft fitted with servo tabs, rearward movement of the control column in flight will:
  1. Move the elevator up and automatically through mechanical linkage, the servo tab down.
  2. Move the servo tab up causing the elevator to be deflected down.
  3. Move the servo tab down.
  1. An aircraft in flight is flying port wing low, the trim tab on the starboard aileron will require to be:
  1. Moved down deflecting the aileron up.
  2. Moved up deflecting the aileron down.
  3. Moved down deflecting the aileron down.
  1. The angle of incidence of an aircraft wing is:
  1. The upward and outward inclination of the wing.
  2. The angle between the wing chord line and the normal axis.
  3. The angle between the wing chord line and the longitudinal axis.
  1. The dihedral angle is the:
  1. Angle between the lateral axis and the normal axis.
  2. Angle between the average chord and the lateral axis.
  3. Upward and outward inclination of the wings.
  1. An aircraft fitted with powered flying controls is flying nose heavy, to bring the aircraft back to level flight:
  1. The control column will be biased aft.
  2. The elevator trim tab must be moved down.
  3. The elevator trim tab must be moved up.
  1. Ailevons normally:
  1. Carry out the function of elevators.
  2. Carry out the function of elevators and ailerons.
  3. Carry out the function of elevators and rudder.
  1. Exhaust valve cooling is normally achieved by:
  1. Air ducted through the cylinder head.
  2. Ram air flowing over the cylinder head cooling fins.
  3. The valve being partially filled with sodium.
  1. An over-rich mixture on starting a piston engine may be due to:
  1. Boost reversal.
  2. The hand priming pump plunger in the out position.
  3. The timing being retarded.
  1. Carburettor hot air will:
  1. Reduce power on take-off.
  2. Not seriously effected power on take-off.
  3. Increases power on take-off.
  1. As a supercharged engine climbs to high altitude, the cylinder head temperature will:
  1. Reduce due to the reduction in ambient temperature.
  2. Remain approximately the same.
  3. Increase due to the increase weight of charge.
  1. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by:
  1. The main engine pump.
  2. Booster pumps.
  3. Fuel tank vents.
  1. A supercharger normally rotates at:
  1. Twice the crankshaft RPM.
  2. Four times the engine RPM.
  3. Ten times engine crankshaft RPM.
  1. The supercharger main bearings are lubricated by:
  1. The engine lubrication system.
  2. Grease packs.
  3. A self-contained oil system.
  1. When engine starting is initiated the waste gate of a turbocharger will be:
  1. Fully open.
  2. Partially open.
  3. Fully closed.
  1. A slight increase in power of a supercharger engine up to its rated altitude is due to:
  1. A slight increase in the volume of charge, due to the reduction in temperature, entering the cylinders.
  2. A reduction in air density resulting in a richer mixture.
  3. An increase in the weight of charge entering the cylinders due to temperature reduction.
  1. If a leak occurs in the exhaust system of a turbocharged piston engine prior to the turbine:
  1. Critical height will be increased.
  2. The waste gate will fail to close as altitude is increased.
  3. The waste gate will close normally as altitude increases.
  1. The waste gate of a turbocharger is:
  1. Opened by spring pressure.
  2. Opened by oil pressure.
  3. Opened by electric actuator.
  1. A supercharger’s output is normally controlled by:
  1. The waste gate.
  2. Boost control lever.
  3. The throttle valve.
  1. Automatic mixture control capsules are:
  1. Prevented from sticking in their cylinders by a coil spring.
  2. Lubricated to prevent sticking by the engine oil system.
  3. Heated to prevent seizing at altitude.
  1. Piston engine hydraulicing is caused by:
  1. Excessive oil pressure in the engine lubrication system.
  2. Oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the engine is static.
  3. Oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the engine is running.
  1. At low engine RPM, black smoke from the exhaust of a piston engine may indicate:
  1. Oil leaking past the piston rings.
  2. Contaminated fuel.
  3. A rich mixture.
  1. Permitted take-off boost may not be obtainable due to:
  1. High manifold velocity reducing mixture pressure.
  2. Low ram air affect at take-off speeds.
  3. Carburettor heating switched off.
  1. When a supercharged engine reaches its rated altitude with the throttle valve fully open, any further opening of the throttle in the cockpit will:
  1. Increase RPM allowing further altitude to be gained.
  2. Increase boost.
  3. Be lost motion.
  1. On a supercharged engine, on start up the boost pressure will:
  1. Fail
  2. Remain constant.
  3. Rise
  1. When operating a hand operated fuel priming pump the plunger should be depressed:
  1. Once for each cylinder.
  2. Until the fuel pressure warning light is extinguished.
  3. Until resistance to its operation is felt.

Technical General Questions

  1. A turbocharger’s main bearing are lubricated by:
  1. The engine lubrication system.
  2. A self-contained lubrication system.
  3. The aircraft hydraulic system.
  1. When starting a piston engine which is primed by an electrical pump:
  1. The pump must be switched off before the engine is started.
  2. The pump must be switched off once the engine has fired.
  3. The pump must be switched off when the engine reaches normal operating temperature.
  1. When a generator is on line:
  1. It is at correct RPM.
  2. The battery indicates a discharge.
  3. It is connected to the busbar.
  1. A short circuit:
  1. Has high resistance.
  2. Has low current.
  3. Allows excessive current.
  1. To prevent a circuit overheating:
  1. Ram air is directed over major components.
  2. Fuses are fitted.
  3. Capacitors are fitted.
  1. Circuit breakers are fitted:
  1. In parallel with the load.
  2. In series with the load.
  3. In parallel with the fuses.
  1. Battery state of charge must be checked every:
  1. Six months.
  2. Three months.
  3. Year
  1. DC generators are normally:
  1. Initially excited by direct current from the battery busbar.
  2. Initially excited by residual magnetism.
  3. Initially excited by ground power.
  1. If a Ni-Cad battery has a thermal runaway condition:
  1. The generator must be isolated to prevent further overcharging of the battery.
  2. The engine must be shut down to prevent fire.
  3. The battery must be isolated.
  1. Batteries are normally fitted to aircraft:
  1. In series to increase voltage.
  2. In parallel to increase voltage.
  3. In parallel to increase ampere-hour capacity.
  1. Aircraft fuses which have blown must:
  1. Be changed twice only and then the engineer must be consulted.
  2. Be reported to the engineer immediately.
  3. Be changed once only and then reported to the engineer.
  1. An earth return circuit is one which:
  1. Uses the aircraft structure as the return.
  2. Has a common earth return lead for all circuits.
  3. Has a return lead for that circuit.
  1. Load shedding will cause the:
  1. Current to increase.
  2. Voltage to increase.
  3. Current to reduce.
  1. In a hydraulic system, when the engine is at idle RPM, the system pressure fails to rise above two thirds maximum normal working pressure, the probable fault is:
  1. Accumulator charge pressure is to low.
  2. The engine RPM is too low.
  3. A pressure relief valve is stuck slightly open.
  1. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
  1. Prevent cavitation at the pump.
  2. Provide, in an emergency, a supply of fluid for the pump.
  3. Assist in damping out system pressure fluctuations.
  1. A one-way restrictor valve may be fitted to:
  1. A flap circuit to reduce the rate of movement in both directions.
  2. An undercarriage circuit to reduce the speed of operation on lowering.
  3. A speed brake to ensure it moves out quickly and moves in slowly.
  1. A vico-static fluid is one which:
  1. Maintains a constant viscosity at all working temperatures.
  2. Maintains a constant viscosity at a specific working temperature.
  3. Will not form sludge or thicken when it is stationary in the system.
  1. A variable volume pump:
  1. Maintains a constant volume of fluid to the circuits at all times.
  2. Maintains a constant pressure in the system.
  3. Maintains a constant temperature throughout the system.
  1. In a wheelbrake circuit, the hydraulic accumulator will provide an increase in the number of brake applications in an emergency:
  1. If the initial charge pressure is increased.
  2. If the initial charge pressure is reduced.
  3. If the initial charge pressure is exhausted.
  1. System fluid must be released:
  1. To check accumulator system pressure.
  2. Prior to checking reservoir fluid pressure.
  3. To check hydraulic pressure failure warning devices.
  1. Excessive pressure due to thermal expansion in a closed circuit may be relieved by a:
  1. Flow control valve.
  2. Pressure reducing valve.
  3. Pressure relief valve.
  1. Excessive system pressure fluctuations may be due to:
  1. High accumulator charge pressure.
  2. Low accumulator system pressure.
  3. Low accumulator charge pressure.
  1. Most modern hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to:
  1. Eliminate cavitation in the pump supply.
  2. To provide pressure for emergency use.
  3. To eliminate hydraulic hammering.
  1. A mineral based hydraulic fluid will require all components to be fitter with:
  1. Natural rubber seals.
  2. Butyl rubber seals.
  3. Synthetic rubber seals.
  1. The geometric pitch of a propeller is the:
  1. Increased blade pitch angle from to tip.
  2. Distance it should move onward in one revolution with blade slip.
  3. Distance it should move forward without blade slip in one revolution.
  1. In normal flight the air loads which tend to oppose the centrifugal twisting moment of a propeller will:
  1. Tend to make the blade move to fine pitch.
  2. Have no serious effect on the propeller.
  3. Tend to make the blade coarsen its pitch.
  1. The pressure face of a propeller is the:
  1. Face of the propeller as seen from the cockpit.
  2. Face of the propeller as seen when facing the aircraft when stood in front of it.
  3. Leading edge of the propeller.
  1. Ground fine pitch locks are fitted to some types of propeller to:
  1. Permit a very fine pitch to be selected for engine starting.
  2. Permit a very fine pitch to be selected to prevent underspeeding of the propeller take-off.
  3. Permit a very fine pitch to be selected in flight to reduce the torque on the engine.
  1. Propeller slip is the difference between the:
  1. Geometric pitch and the effective pitch of the blade.
  2. Effective pitch and the actual thrust.
  3. Angular velocity and the true air speed.
  1. The power absorption of a propeller may be improved by:
  1. Reducing the chord of the blades.
  2. Increasing the camber of the blades aerofoil sections.
  3. Reduce the number of blades.
  1. When reverse pitch is selected the blades of the propeller will move:
  1. Through coarse pitch to feather and then to reverse pitch.
  2. To reverse pitch through fine and very fine pitch.
  3. To reverse pitch through coarse pitch to super coarse then to reverse pitch.
  1. When feathering a propeller fitted with a constant speed unit:
  1. The throttle must be closed after feather is selected to maintain power to the pump.
  2. The throttle must be closed prior to feather being selected.
  3. The throttle must be left in the fully open position to ensure the engine is fully primed for restart when unfeathering.
  1. In the fully feathered position the:
  1. Blade leading edge faces forward.
  2. Blade trailing edge faces forward.
  3. Blade is said to be superfine.
  1. In a propeller fitted with a CSU:
  1. Oil drains from the cylinder to increases pitch.
  2. Oil is pumped into the airscrew cylinder to increase pitch.
  3. The pilot valve closes aircrew oil duct to increase pitch.
  1. The booster pump in a CSU is basically a:
  1. Constant volume pump.
  2. Variable pump.
  3. Swash plate type controlled by accumulator pressure.
  1. When a constant speed propeller fitted with a CSU overspeeds:
  1. High pressure oil is directed to the airscrew cylinder.
  2. The pilot valve closes main airscrew duct.
  3. High pressure oil is released from the airscrew cylinder.
  1. The normal maximum attainable speed for piston engined aircraft is:
  1. +/- 500 mph.
  2. +/- 500 kts.
  3. 75
  1. The speed of sound is defined as:
  1. The speed at which sound travels through air.
  2. The speed at which a very small pressure disturbance is propagated in a fluid under specified conditions.
  3. The speed at which a very small pressure disturbance can be measured in a fluid under specified conditions.
  1. The speed of a sound wave varies with:
  1. Temperature and density of the medium through which it is travelling.
  2. Height of the density atmosphere.
  3. Aircraft height.
  1. The formula for calculating the true air speed of sound at any altitude is:
  1. MN = k√T where K is a known constant and °T are in Celsius.
  2. LSS = k√T where K is a known constant and °T are in Absolute.
  3. Mn = k√T where K is a known constant and °T are in Absolute.
  1. Small pressure changes around a wing at low speeds cause:
  1. Small but measurable changes in the compressibility of the air.
  2. Small variations in the density of the air which cannot be measured.
  3. Significant variations in the density of the air.
  1. The disturbance around a wing which are caused by its passage through the medium surrounding it travel at:
  1. A speed proportional to Mcrit.
  2. The speed of sound.
  3. A speed, which is quite unpredictable.
  1. When a wing moves through the air, the speed at which the pressure waves produced by its interaction with the air:
  1. Travel forward from the aircraft as long as the aircraft speed is below M1.0.
  2. Travel forward from the aircraft at all speeds.
  3. Travel in all directions radiating from the nose of the aircraft at the speed of sound.
  1. The pressure waves produced by an aircraft travelling at subsonic speed:
  1. Completely cover the aircraft.
  2. Cover those parts of the aircraft, which are ahead of the Mcrit pressure wave.
  3. Cover those parts of the aircraft aft of the Mcrit pressure wave.
  1. A compression wave forms at M1.0:
  1. At the “blow” wave.
  2. At the leading edge of the wing.
  3. At the foremost part of the aircraft.
  1. At true air speeds above the local speed of sound:
  1. The air ahead of the wing is accelerated to the local free Mach No.
  2. The air ahead of the aircraft is completely unaffected by the pressure field formed around the wing.
  3. The air ahead of the aircraft is affected by the pressure field formed around the wing to a greater of lesser degree according to the Mcrit.
  1. Free Stream Mach Number is:
  1. The Mn of the fastest moving airflow associated with the passage of an aircraft.
  2. The Mn of the airflow in contact with the Mcrit pressure wave.
  3. The true Mn of the aircraft.
  1. The local speed of sound can be defined as:
  1. The ratio of the actual speed of the airflow around a point and the speed of sound at the point.
  2. The ratio of the maximum speed of the airflow around a point and the speed of sound at the point.
  3. The ratio of the maximum speed of the airflow around a point and the speed of sound at Mcrit at that point.
  1. It is true to say that:
  1. An alternator provides more electrical power at lower engine RPM than a generator.
  2. A generator charges the battery during low engine RPM so the battery will stay charged longer than with an alternator providing charge.
  3. A generator always provides more electrical current than an alternator.
  1. When the airflow above the wing reaches LSS a shock wave is formed:
  1. Above the wing at right angles to the angle of attack.
  2. Above the wing at right angles to the airflow.
  3. Above the wing at right angles to chord.
  1. At Mcrit:
  1. The air immediately in front of the shock wave is transonic and the air immediately behind the shock wave is supersonic.
  2. The air immediately in front of the shock wave is supersonic and the air immediately behind the shock wave is transonic.
  3. The air immediately in front of the shock wave is supersonic and the air immediately behind the shock wave is subsonic.
  1. Mcrit is the Mach number when:
  1. Mfg reaches unity.
  2. Any Ml reaches unity.
  3. A shock wave is formed ahead of the wing.
  1. A machmeter is preferred at high altitudes and speeds because:
  1. The ASI cannot register small changes in RAS/CAS accurately, which will affect the values of TAS.
  2. The ASI is difficult to read accurately in the high-speed range.
  3. Temperature changes are compensated for in the Machmeter.
  1. Compressibility can be experienced in flight:
  1. At speeds when the free air stream is below LSS.
  2. At any speed.
  3. At speeds when the free air stream is below Mcrit.
  1. AC current for an aircraft instrument can be obtained from:
  1. An inverter.
  2. An alternator.
  3. A battery
  1. When a supersonic airstreams passes through a shock wave:
  1. The airflow direction immediately behind the wave alters.
  2. The static pressure behind the wave decreases.
  3. The static pressure behind the wave increases.
  4. The normal number of spark igniters fitted to a turbojet engine is:
  1. At high Mach numbers, “tuck under” will tend to cause the aircraft nose to:
  1. Drop
  2. Rise
  3. Rise or drop according to the Ml.
  1. Vortex generators:
  1. Increase the speed of the air layer close to the aircraft wing.
  2. Decrease the speed of the air layer close to the aircraft wing.
  3. Energise the area immediately next to the shock wave.
  1. The turbocharger impeller is situated:
  1. Prior to the fuel injector.
  2. After the carburettor.
  3. In the exhaust system.
  1. The impeller of a supercharger rotates:
  1. Twice the speed of the engine.
  2. Half the speed of the engine crankshaft.
  3. Nine to ten times the speed of the engine crankshaft.

 

  1. The flow in the combustion chamber of a turbine engine is:
  1. Convergent
  2. Divergent
  3. Divergent / convergent.
  1. The flow sequence of the air through a jet engine flying at supersonic speed is:
  1. Supersonic, subsonic, subsonic.
  2. Supersonic, subsonic, supersonic.
  3. Supersonic, supersonic, supersonic.
  1. The type of turbine blades most commonly used in jet engines is:
  1. Impulse
  2. Reaction
  3. Impulse / reaction.
  1. The pressure rise per compressor stage is higher in a:
  1. Centrifugal compressor.
  2. Axial compressor.
  3. Combination axial / centrifugal flow compressor.
  1. The effectiveness of speed brake deployment:
  1. Is greater at high altitude.
  2. Is greater at low altitude.
  3. If a function of IAS, increasing with high IAS.
  1. Mcrit can be raised by:
  1. Increasing slimness and sweepback.
  2. Decreasing aircraft weight.
  3. Increasing the power to weight ratio.
  1. High speed flight requires a wing with:
  1. A low thickness / chord ratio.
  2. A high thickness / chord ratio.
  3. A high coefficient of lift.
  1. The Reverse Thrust Operating light is illuminated:
  1. When the thrust reversers are away from the forward thrust locked position.
  2. When the reverse thrust levers are moved out of the stowed position.
  3. Only when the reverse thrust gas flow sequence is initiated.

 

  1. The stage of the Brayton cycle are:
  1. Inlet / compression / expansion / combustion / exhaust.
  2. Inlet / compression / combustion / expansion / exhaust.
  3. Inlet / compression / expansion / combustion / expansion / exhaust.
  1. The compressor in the turbojet engine:
  1. Drives the turbine.
  2. Is driven by the turbine.
  3. Is not connected directly to the turbine.
  1. The majority of the energy of the total gas flow after combustion:
  1. Is used to power the compressor.
  2. Is used to provide thrust.
  3. Is dissipated when it is cooled by the unburnt gases.
  1. The turbojet engine is efficient at:
  1. Most of the speed range.
  2. High speed.
  3. A narrow speed band.
  1. In the turbofan engine, the majority of the air passing through the fan:
  1. Is used in the combustion process.
  2. Is used to cool the burnt gases.
  3. Is used to provide thrust.
  1. Turbofan engines are usually:
  1. Single spool engines.
  2. Single shaft engines.
  3. Multi spool / shaft engines.
  1. Turboprop engines use extra turbine stages to extract more energy from the combustion gases:
  1. Because the power required is too high for a single stage to handle within the speed range of the engine.
  2. To improve efficiency over the airspeed range.
  3. To provide power for ancillary service.
  1. The efficiency of a turbojet engine increases with:
  1. A lower rotational speed of the compressor impeller.
  2. A higher rotational speed of the compressor impeller.
  3. Operation of the impeller within a specified range.

 

  1. One source of inefficiency in a turbo jet engine is:
  1. High exhaust velocity relative to the TAS.
  2. A large mass of air is accelerated to a low velocity relative to the airframe.
  3. Too large a gap between the compressor blades and the engine shroud.
  1. The pressure rise for each stage of the compressor in an axial flow compressor is relatively small because:
  1. The closeness of each stage prevents high pressure rises, which, if too high, will make the compressor stall.
  2. It is easier to compress air to a required value in stages rather than in one operation.
  3. Air leakage between stages is reduced with low pressure rises.
  1. The initial temperature of the combustion gases after initial exit from the burners is:
  1. +/- 1 8000 to 2 000°C.
  2. +/- 1 000 to 1 500°C.
  3. +/- 800 to 1 200°C.
  1. The gases released immediately after combustion are too hot to enter the nozzle guide vanes of the turbine. These gases are cooled by:
  1. Compression
  2. Sunburnt fuel.
  3. Mixing with unburnt air from the compressor and cooling of the flame tube.
  1. The multiple combustion chamber is found nowadays in:
  1. Centrifugal compressor engines.
  2. Axial compressor engines.
  3. Centrifugal and axial compressor engines.
  1. The combustion efficiency of a normal gas turbine engine:
  1. Increases from sea level to high altitude.
  2. Decreases from sea level to high altitude.
  3. Remains constant at all altitudes.
  1. The compressor is driven by:
  1. Air which is induced into the engine by the rotation of the turbine.
  2. The turbine.
  3. The gearbox which is driven by the turbine.

 

  1. AVGAS may by used in a turbojet engine:
  1. Under no circumstances whatsoever.
  2. In emergency only.
  3. Under certain defined circumstances only.
  1. Select the correct statement:
  1. Two igniters are required for starting a turbojet engine.
  2. One igniter is sufficient for starting a turbojet engine.
  3. Some turbo jet engines are not equipped with igniters.
  1. Engines can be re-started in flight:
  1. At any altitude.
  2. If fitted with the correct equipment.
  3. So long as certain parameters are met.
  1. During a normal landing, the application of reverse thrust should be made:
  1. During the latter part of the landing run before applying wheel brakes.
  2. After the nose wheel contacts the runway and early in the landing run.
  3. At pilot’s discretion.
  1. Revere thrust is applied during the landing phase:
  1. By diverting of the exhaust gases flow after the engine has reached idle speed.
  2. By blocking airflow to the turbine.
  3. By reversing the direction of the airflow through the engine.
  1. High lift devices in high speed aircraft are used:
  1. To raise the approach speed.
  2. To increase lift and to lower the approach speed.
  3. To generate sufficient lift at a lower speed than would otherwise be possible.
  1. Net thrust is expressed as:
  1. Gross thrust less intake drag.
  2. Gross thrust less intake ram pressure.
  3. MVj, where m is the m is the mass throughflow and Vj is the exhaust gas velocity.
  1. Engine thrust is produced by:
  1. Fuel flow / RPM / inlet pressure.
  2. Exhaust velocity.
  3. Mass flow and velocity change.

 

  1. The indications of approaching Mcrit are:
  1. The nose tends to rise.
  2. The nose tends to drop.
  3. The Machmeter indicates M1.0 (after correction).
  1. In order to raise the nose of an aircraft fitted with an all-moving tailplane:
  1. The trim tab must be lowered.
  2. The trim tab must be raised.
  3. The angle of incidence must be increased.
  1. Devices used to counter spanwise airflow include:
  1. Washout
  2. Saw tooth leading edges.
  3. Stall fences.
  1. The maximum operating speed of a turboprop engine aircraft is approximately:
  1. 400 kts TAS.
  2. 250 kts TAS.
  3. M 1.3.
  1. Engine life of a turbojet aircraft is reduced by:
  1. Extremes of temperature and pressure between ground level and the high altitudes at which these aircraft operate.
  2. Corrosion of the compressor blades by the fuel
  3. Rubbing of the turbine blades against the shroud.
  1. The function of a Mach trim device is:
  1. To produce nose-up trim at high Mach numbers.
  2. To produce nose-down trim at high Mach numbers.
  3. To trim the aircraft for minimum shock drag.
  1. The pressure rise per compressor stage is higher in a:
  1. Centrifugal compressor.
  2. Axial compressor.
  3. Mechanical compressor.
  1. The thrust produced by the fan of a turbofan engine, expressed as a percentage of the total thrust is:
  1. 75%.
  2. 50%.
  3. 25%.

Technical General Questions

  1. The speed of the airflow behind a normal shock wave will:
  1. Increase
  2. Decrease
  3. Remain unaltered.
  1. Transonic speed is when:
  1. Part of the airflow over the aircraft is supersonic and part is subsonic.
  2. When the aircraft is accelerating through Mach 1.
  3. When the flow at the critical point reaches the critical Mach number.
  1. Nozzle guide vanes affect the airflow through the engine:
  1. By increasing dynamic pressure.
  2. By decreasing dynamic pressure.
  3. By decreasing dynamic pressure and increasing the through flow pressure
  1. The compressor stall occurs when:
  1. The compressor stops turning.
  2. There is no airflow through the engine.
  3. Turbulent airflow in the inlet stalls the compressor flow over the blades.
  1. The preferred engine intake for a jet-engine subsonic aircraft is:
  1. Convergent
  2. Divergent
  3. A straight tube.
  1. The exhaust nozzle is shaped to:
  1. Increase the heat of the exhaust gases by compression and increase mass flow.
  2. Increase the velocity of the exhaust gases and increase mass flow.
  3. Slow the velocity of the exhaust gases to subsonic speed.
  1. A by-product of the exhaust is a swirl. The swirl will:
  1. Increase the thrust.
  2. Decrease the thrust.
  3. Not change the thrust value.
  1. In a axial type compressor, the compression ratio is determined by:
  1. The size of the compressor blades.
  2. The RPM of the compressor stages.
  3. The number of stages.

 

  1. The factor most affecting the maximum speed of a turbojet aircraft is:
  1. Environmental concerns.
  2. The sharp increase in drag above Mcrit.
  3. The limited thrust available.
  1. At Mcrit the coefficient of drag:
  1. Decreases constantly.
  2. Increase rapidly.
  3. Remains constant.
  1. After separation the boundary layer thickness:
  1. Increases more rapidly.
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains at a constant thickness.
  1. The indications of a hung start are:
  1. Normal TIT.
  2. Low RPM not increasing or increasing very slowly.
  3. High TIT, RPM high and rising, black smoke.
  1. In a steady, level turn with an angle of bank of 50°, the load factor and stall speed will be:
  1. 96 and 1.4 times that in level flight respectively.
  2. 55 and 1.24 times that in level flight respectively.
  3. 24 and 1.55 times that in level flight respectively.
  1. In order to achieve maximum endurance in a piston engine aircraft, the aircraft must be flown at:
  1. The speed for best lift to drag ratio at the full throttle height.
  2. The speed for minimum power consumption at the full throttle height.
  3. The speed for minimum power consumption at the lowest safe altitude.
  1. Most techniques of providing lateral stability rely on:
  • Dihedral
  • Sideslip
  • Weathercocking
  1. The service ceiling of an aircraft is the altitude at which the rate of climb reduces to:
  1. Zero
  2. 50 feet per minute.
  3. 100 feet per minute.

 

  1. In comparing the glide performance of differently loaded but identical types of aircraft:
  1. The heavier aircraft will dissipate its energy faster and thus reach the ground in a shorter distance.
  2. Will dissipate its energy faster but glide the same distance if flown at a lower speed.
  3. Sink faster but if flown at the speed for the best lift to drag ratio, glide the same distance.
  1. An aircraft turns when banked because the:
  1. Horizontal component of lift exceeds the vertical component of lift.
  2. Horizontal component of lift forces the aircraft to turn.
  3. Resultant lift acts outward and upward from the centre of the turn.
  1. When the load factor is kept constant during a level co-ordinated turn, it is true to say that:
  1. An increase in airspeed would result in the same turn radius.
  2. An increase in airspeed results in a decrease in turn radius.
  3. An increase in airspeed results in an increase in turn radius.
  1. As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum L/D speed because of the:
  1. Increase in induced drag. (LDD).
  2. Increase in profile drag. (ZLD).
  3. Decrease in profile drag. (ZLD).
  1. As airspeed decreases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum L/D speed because of the:
  1. Increase in induced drag.
  2. Increase in parasite drag.
  3. Decrease in induced drag.
  1. In comparison with a low aspect ratio wing, a high aspect ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have:
  1. Decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack.
  2. Increased drag, especially at high angles of attack.
  3. Increased drag, especially at low angles of attack.

 

  1. In comparison with a high aspect ratio wing, a low aspect ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have:
  1. Decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack.
  2. Decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack.
  3. Increased drag, especially at high angles of attack.
  1. A rectangular wing (compared to other wing planforms) has a tendency to stall first at the:
  1. Wing root providing adequate stall warning.
  2. Wingtip providing adequate stall warning.
  3. Wing root providing inadequate stall warning.
  1. Aircraft designed for less lateral manoeuvrability have:
  1. Greater wing dihedral, but less sweepback.
  2. Less wing dihedral, but greater sweepback.
  3. Greater wing dihedral and sweepback.
  1. The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to:
  1. Change the camber or curvature of the wing.
  2. Decrease landing speed.
  3. Decrease the lift of the wing.
  1. Changing the angle of attack of a wing, enables control of the:
  1. Lift, gross weight and drag.
  2. Lift, airspeed and drag.
  3. Airspeed, weight and drag.
  1. Changes in the centre of pressure of a wing affect the:
  1. Aerodynamic balance and controllability.
  2. CG location.
  3. Lift/drag ratio.
  1. To descend at the same airspeed as used in straight-and-level flight, power must be reduced or drag increased because the:
  1. Component of weight acting forward along the flightpath increases as the descent angle increases.
  2. Lifting action of the wing decreases as the angle of attack decreases.
  3. Component of weight acting forward along the flightpath decreases as the rate of descent increases.

 

  1. To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an aircraft must be flown at:
  1. A lower true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
  2. A lower true airspeed and a greater angle at attack.
  3. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
  1. Dynamic longitudinal instability in an aircraft can be identified by:
  1. The need to apply continuous forward pressure on the elevators.
  2. The need to apply continuous back pressure on the elevators.
  3. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
  1. If the aircraft nose initially tends to return to the original position after the elevator is pressed forward and released, the aircraft displays:
  1. Negative stability.
  2. Positive static stability.
  3. Negative dynamic stability.
  1. In co-ordinated flight for any specific bank, the faster the speed the:
  1. Greater the radius and the faster the rate of turn.
  2. Smaller the radius and the faster the rate of turn.
  3. Greater the radius and the slower the rate of turn.
  1. To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius:
  1. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
  2. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
  3. Steepen the bank and decreases airspeed.
  1. It is necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a medium to steep banking turn:
  1. Because the rudder function has been transferred to the elevator as the bank angle approaches 45°.
  2. To compensate for the loss of vertical lift and increased centrifugal force.
  3. To compensate for the effect of drag caused by deflection of the ailerons.
  1. To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle at attack must be increased to compensate for the increase in the:
  1. Wing loading.
  2. Horizontal component of lift.
  3. Vertical component of lift.

 

  1. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (Vfe) is lower than cruising airspeed because:
  1. The additional lift and drag created would overload the wing structure at higher speeds.
  2. The flaps will retract automatically at higher speeds.
  3. Too much drag is induced.
  1. The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as:
  1. Load factor.
  2. Power loading.
  3. Aspect ratio.
  1. Load factor is the actual load supported by the wings of an aircraft at any given moment:
  1. Divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
  2. Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.
  3. Subtracted from the total weight of the aircraft.
  1. If a load factor of 3 is placed on an aircraft with a gross weight of 3 000 lbs, the total load on the aircraft structure would be:
  1. 3 000 lbs.
  2. 6 000 lbs.
  3. 9 000 lbs.
  1. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a co-ordinated constant altitude turn:
  1. Is constant.
  2. Is directly related to the gross aircraft weight.
  3. Increase very slowly beyond 45° of bank.
  1. Regarding the stalling speed, it is true to say that:
  1. A low speed is necessary to produce a stall.
  2. The stall speed of a given aircraft in not a fixed value.
  3. The stall speed of a given aircraft is the same regardless of the flight manoeuvre.
  1. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of:
  1. Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.
  2. Dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.
  3. Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

 

  1. With comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and aircraft weight, the groundspeed at touchdown at high elevation airports will be:
  1. Higher than at sea level.
  2. Lower than at sea level.
  3. The same as at sea level.
  1. An aircraft leaving ground effect will:
  1. Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
  2. Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
  3. Display more stability and a nose-down change in moment.
  1. An aircraft leaving ground effect:
  1. Require a greater angle of attack to maintain the same coefficient of lift.
  2. Produce less induced drag and require less thrust.
  3. Produce more static source pressure and higher indicated airspeed.
  1. To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect requires:
  1. Greater thrust and the same angle of attack.
  2. A greater angle of attack.
  3. A lower angle of attack.
  1. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to:
  1. Permit a touchdown at a higher indicted airspeed.
  2. Increase the angle of descent without increasing airspeed.
  3. Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.
  1. It is true to say concerning use of flaps during approach and landing that:
  1. Flaps decrease lift, which increases the stall speed.
  2. Flaps provide an increased in lift.
  3. A steeper-than-normal approach is necessary due to increase in stall speed.
  1. If the outside air temperature at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is:
  1. Lower than pressure altitude, but approximately equal to the true altitude.
  2. Higher than true altitude, but lower than pressure altitude.
  3. Higher than the pressure altitude.

 

  1. Comparing an aircraft generator with an alternator:
  1. An alternator provides more power at lower engine RPM than a generator.
  2. A generator charges the battery during low engine RPM, therefore, the battery has less chance to discharge than with an alternator.
  3. A generator always provides more current than an alternator.
  1. As well as the additional safety factor, dual ignition systems also provides:
  1. Improved engine performance.
  2. Better heat control of the engine.
  3. Easier starting.
  1. The amount of water absorbed in aviation fuels will:
  1. Remain the same regardless of temperature changes.
  2. Decrease as the temperature of the fuel increases.
  3. Increase as the temperature of the fuel increase.
  1. Fuel tank vents must be open:
  1. To allow proper air pressure in the tanks to maintain a steady fuel flow.
  2. To allow fuel fumes to escape, eliminating the chance of the tank exploding.
  3. To allow excess fuel to drain overboard when heat expands the fuel.
  1. Completely filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day prevents fuel contamination by eliminating the airspace so that:
  1. Rust or corrosive scale cannot form in the tanks.
  2. Condensation of moist air cannot occur within the tanks.
  3. Development of micro-organisms in the fuel is prevented.
  1. One advantage of fuel injection systems over carburettor systems is:
  1. Better fuel distribution to the cylinders.
  2. Easier hot-engine starting.
  3. Easier in-flight restarting.
  1. One advantage of fuel ignition systems over carburettor systems is:
  1. Elimination of vapour locks during ground operations.
  2. A reduction in the probability of evaporative icing.
  3. Easier starting of a hot engine.
  1. One disadvantage of fuel ignition systems compared with carburettor systems is:
  1. Difficulty in starting a hot engine.
  2. Uneven fuel distribution to the cylinders.
  3. Poor control of the fuel/air mixture.

 

  1. Spark plugs in an aircraft engine are fouled:
  1. When excessive heat in the combustion chamber of a cylinder causes oil to form on the centre electrodes of a spark plug fouling the plug.
  2. When operating with an excessively rich mixture.
  3. Primarily by operating at excessively high cylinder head temperatures.
  1. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by:
  1. The oil level being too low.
  2. The oil level being too high.
  3. Operating with an excessively rich mixture.
  1. With regard to detonation, it is true to say that:
  1. Detonation may be caused by opening the throttle abruptly when the engine is running at slow speeds.
  2. Detonation is most likely to occur immediately after starting a cold engine.
  3. Detonation can easily be detected by a pinging sound.
  1. When the throttle is advanced during cruise on aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller the propeller pitch angle automatically:
  1. Increase and engine RPM remains the same.
  2. Increases and engine RPM also increases.
  3. Decreases and engine RPM remains the same.
  1. When the throttle setting is decreased during cruise on aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the propeller pitch automatically:
  1. Increases and RPM increases.
  2. Decreases and RPM remain the same.
  3. Increases and RPM remain the same.
  1. In aircraft equipped with constant speed propellers undue stress on engine components is best avoided by:
  1. (When power is increased or decreased) adjusting RPM before the manifold pressure.
  2. (When power is decreased) reducing RPM before reducing manifold pressure.
  3. (When power is increased) increasing RPM before increasing manifold pressure.

 

  1. With regard to propeller efficiency it is correct to say that:
  1. Propeller efficiency is the ratio of thrust to brake horsepower.
  2. Propeller efficiency is the theoretical distance a propeller should advance during one revolution.
  3. Propeller efficiency is the actual distance a propeller advanced during one revolution.
  1. If the aircraft is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded limits, the instruments to rely on first to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery are:
  1. Turn indicator and VSI.
  2. SI and altimeter.
  3. Turn indicator and ASI.
  1. Prior to staring the engine the manifold pressure gauge usually indicates ± 29” Hg. This is because the:
  1. Throttle is in the fully open position.
  2. Throttle is closed, trapping high air pressure in the manifold.
  3. Pressure within the manifold is the same as atmospheric pressure.
  1. Cylinder head and oil temperature readings are likely to exceed the normal operating ranges when:
  1. Using fuel with a lower-than-specified octane rating for the engine.
  2. Using fuel with a higher-than-specified octane rating for the engine.
  3. Operating with the mixture control set too rich.
  1. The gaseous mixture expands within the cylinder during the:
  1. Compression stroke.
  2. Power stroke.
  3. Exhaust stroke.
  1. When operating a typical unsupercharged aircraft engine it is true to say that:
  1. Operating with an excessively lean mixture for an extended period of time usually results in fouled spark plugs.
  2. Detonation often cannot be recognized from the cockpit through sound or engine roughness.
  3. Generally speaking, rich mixture must be used with caution when operating at high-power settings.

 

  1. If fuel/air mixture adjustments are not made during high altitude operation, engine performance will be affected because of a:
  1. Decrease in the volume of air while there is an increase in the amount of fuel entering the carburettor.
  2. Decrease in weight of the air while the same amount of fuel enters the carburettor.
  3. Decrease in weight of the air and amount of fuel entering the carburettor.
  1. During run-up at a high-elevation airport it is noted that a slight engine roughness is not affected by the magneto check, but grows worse during the carburettor heat check. Under these circumstances, the most logical initial action is to:
  1. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture control.
  2. Taxi back for a maintenance check.
  3. Check to see that the mixture is in the fully rich position.
  1. Compared with fuel injection systems, float-type carburettor systems are generally considered to be:
  1. Equally susceptible to icing.
  2. Susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
  3. More susceptible to icing.
  1. When operating a supercharged engine, the use of carburettor heat should be regulated by reference to the:
  1. Carburettor air or mixture temperature gauge.
  2. Cylinder air temperature gauge.
  3. Manifold pressure or RPM indicator.
  1. In an aircraft equipped with a float-type carburettor and a constant-speed propeller, carburettor icing would probably first be detected by:
  1. A drop in engine RPM.
  2. A drop in manifold pressure and engine RPM.
  3. A drop in manifold pressure.
  1. Regarding aircraft engine operation during cold weather:
  1. Prolonged idling makes the spark electrodes saturated with congealed oil and results in shorting out the plugs.
  2. Overpriming could result in poor compression and hard starting.
  3. Engine parts expand, making if difficult to crank the engine.

 

  1. While taxiing a light, high-wing aircraft during strong quartering tailwinds the aileron control (wheel or stick) should be positioned:
  1. Towards the direction from which the wind is blowing.
  2. Neutral at all times.
  3. Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.
  1. The aileron positions which should be generally used when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds are:
  1. Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
  2. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
  3. Aileron parallel to the ground on the side from which the wind is blowing.
  1. The technique required for a crosswind correction on take-off is:
  1. Aileron pressure into wind and initiate lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nosewheel-type aircraft.
  2. Rudder as required to keep directional control, aileron pressure into wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional and nosewheel aircraft.
  3. Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle and conventional gear aircraft.
  1. The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be stalled without imposing structural damage is:
  1. The design manoeuvring speed.
  2. Never-exceed speed.
  3. Maximum structural cruising speed.
  1. Operations approaching maximum speeds (such as Vne) should be avoided because:
  1. Excessive induced drag will cause structural failures.
  2. The stalling speed is increased to the point where manoeuvres will result in a stall.
  3. Of the possibility of inducing flutter or exceeding design load factors.
  1. The most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete power failure after becoming airborne on take-off is:
  1. Gaining altitude quickly.
  2. Landing directly into the wind.
  3. Maintaining safe airspeed.

 

  1. The approach and landing recommend during gusty wind conditions is:
  1. A power-off approach at the normal speed and a power-off landing.
  2. A power-on approach at the recommended speed and power-on landing.
  3. A power-on approach and power-off landing at a lower speed.
  1. Under normal conditions, a proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that at the moment of touchdown, the:
  1. Direction of motion of the aircraft and the lateral axis is perpendicular to the runway.
  2. Direction of motion of the aircraft and the longitudinal axis is parallel to the runway.
  3. Upwind wheel should be braked lightly to control the shifting CG.
  1. For take-off, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at an angle which produces:
  1. Equal pressure on each side of each blade.
  2. A small angle of attack.
  3. A large angle of attack.
  1. To avoid the wing tip vortices of a departing jet during take-off:
  1. Establish a flightpath downwind of the vortices.
  2. Lift off at a point well past the jet aircraft flightpath.
  3. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aircraft flightpath.
  1. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:
  1. Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
  2. Rise into the take-off or landing path of a crosswind runway.
  3. Accumulate at the beginning of the take-off roll.
  1. When turbulence is encountered during the approach to land, the best action is to:
  1. Increase airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.
  2. Increase airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.
  3. Decrease airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to prevent overshooting the landing area.
  1. Vortex turbulence which might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is:
  1. Developing lift.
  2. Heavily loaded.
  3. Operating at high airspeeds.

 

  1. The best technique for minimising the wing load factor when flying in severe turbulence is to:
  1. Control altitude with power, airspeed with elevator and accept variations of bank.
  2. Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level and accept variations of altitude.
  3. Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below manoeuvring speed, maintain wings level and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.
  1. When entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported the appropriate action on encountering the first ripple is to:
  1. Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.
  2. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.
  3. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.
  1. The recommended procedure in the event of unintentional thunderstorm penetration is to:
  1. Reduce airspeed to manoeuvring speed and maintain a constant altitude.
  2. Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain level attitude.
  3. Reduce airspeed to manoeuvring speed and then maintain constant airspeed.
  1. The correct sequence for recovery from a spiralling nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude is to:
  1. Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.
  2. Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
  3. Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
  1. The principle advantage of using propeller reduction gears is:
  1. To enable propeller RPM to be increased without an accompanying increase in engine RPM.
  2. That the diameter and blade area of the propeller can be increased.
  3. To enable engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in power and to allow the propeller to remain to a lower more efficient RPM.
  1. The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a reciprocating engine is known as the:
  1. Shaft horsepower.
  2. Indicated horsepower.
  3. Thrust horsepower.

 

  1. The inside of some cylinder barrels is hardened by:
  1. Nitriding
  2. Nickel plating.
  3. Cadmium plating.
  1. Top overhaul of a piston engine means:
  1. Complete reconditioning of engine and accessories.
  2. Ignition tuning and adjustment of valve clearance.
  3. Reconditioning the cylinders, pistons and valve operating mechanism.
  1. Engines operate more smoothly when the number of cylinders is increased because:
  1. The power impulses are spaced closer together.
  2. The heat formed is dissipated more evenly.
  3. The engine has larger counter balance weights.
  1. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the piston is at bottom centre. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder the volume equals 10 cubic inches. The compression ratio is:

 

  • 1:7.
  • 7:10.
  • 7:1.
  1. The purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine is:
  1. To check magneto drop.
  2. To determine satisfactory performance.
  3. To determine that the fuel/air mixture is adequate.

Technical General Questions

  1. The probable cause of oil being thrown out of the breather on wet-sump reciprocating engine is:
  1. Broken scavenger pump.
  2. Worn piston rings.
  3. Excessive oil.
  1. An engine is shut down because of high operating temperature, loss of power, loss of oil through the engine breather and complete loss of oil pressure. The most likely cause is:
  1. An inoperative engine oil pump.
  2. An inoperative scavenge pump.
  3. A ruptured supercharger shaft oil seal

 

  1. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range from zero normal operating pressure the most likely cause is:
  1. Low oil supply.
  2. Broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
  3. Air lock in the scavenge pump intake.
  1. The indicated oil pressure of a particular dry-sump aircraft engine is higher at cruise RPM than at idle RPM. This indicates:
  1. Defective piston-oil control rings.
  2. Insufficient oil supply.
  3. Normal operation.
  1. Before attempting to start a radial engine which has been shut down for more than 30 minutes:
  1. Place the fuel selector valve in the OFF position.
  2. Pull the propeller through by hand in the opposite direction to normal rotation to check for liquid lock.
  3. Turn the propeller three to four revolutions in the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid lock.
  1. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at normal operating temperatures, the:
  1. Oil system relief valve should be readjusted.
  2. Lubrication system is probably operating normally.
  3. Engine should be shut down immediately.
  1. The best indication of worn valve guides is:
  1. High oil consumption.
  2. Low oil pressure.
  3. High oil pressure.
  1. Increased water vapour (higher relative humidity) in the incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally result in:
  1. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and manifold pressure.
  2. Increased power output due to increased volumetric efficiency.
  3. Reduced fuel flow requirements at high-power settings due to reduced detonation tendencies.
  1. Detonation differs from pre-ignition in that:
  1. Detonation cannot be detected in an engine as easily as pre-ignition.
  2. Pre-ignition will cause a loss of power, but will not damage an engine.
  3. d) Detonation usually occurs in only a few cylinders at one time.

 

  1. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant:
  • Volume
  • Pressure
  • Velocity
  1. When starting a turbo-jet engine:
  1. A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
  2. An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start.
  3. The engine should start between 60 to 80 seconds after the fuel shutoff lever is opened.
  1. Newton’s First Law of motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:
  1. To every action there is an equal opposite reaction.
  2. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
  3. Every body persists in a state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force.
  1. A manifold pressure gauge is designed to:
  1. Indicate differential pressure between the intake manifold and atmospheric pressure.
  2. Indicate variations of atmospheric pressure at different altitudes.
  3. Indicate pressure in the manifold throat.
  1. An example of a primary engine instrument would be:
  1. Tachometer
  2. Fuel flowmeter.
  3. Airspeed indicator.
  1. Engine oil temperature gauge indicates the temperature of oil:
  1. Entering the oil cooler.
  2. Entering the engine.
  3. In the oil storage tank.
  1. Engine pressure ratio is determined by:
  1. Multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
  2. Multiplying turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.
  3. Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

 

  1. The most satisfactory extinguisher agent for an electrical fire is:
  1. Water
  2. Carbon tetrachloride.
  3. Carbon dioxide.
  1. Alternators are often driven by a constant-speed drive mechanism to permit a nearly constant:
  1. Voltage output.
  2. Amperage output.
  3. Frequency
  1. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of the:
  1. Resistance to flow.
  2. Ability to transmit force.
  3. Rate of change of internal friction with change in temperature.
  1. Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance and the weight of an equal volume of:
  1. Oil at a specific temperature.
  2. Mercury at a specific temperature.
  3. Distilled water at a specific temperature.
  1. The viscosity of lubricating oil is greatly affected by:
  • Temperature
  • Pressure
  • Volatility
  1. The functions of lubricating oil in an aircraft engine are to:
  1. Lubricate, cool, clean, and prevent fatigue of parts.
  2. Lubricate, cool, seal, and prevent internal pressure build-up.
  3. Lubricate, seal, cool and clean.
  1. If a high powered engine has been ground operated at high RPM for long enough to reach high operating temperature, care should be taken not to decelerate the engine too quickly to avoid the possibility of:
  1. Carbonising oil trapped in the ring grooves.
  2. Rupturing the diaphragm control valve in the automatic oil temperature control unit.
  3. Completely scavenging all power section oil.

 

  1. The primary purpose of changing aircraft engine lubricating oils at predetermined periods is because:
  1. Exposure to heat and oxygen causes the oil to lose the ability to maintain a film under load.
  2. The oil becomes contaminated with finely divided particles in suspension.
  3. The oil eventually wears out.
  1. All oil tanks are equipped with vent lines:
  1. To prevent pressure build up in the engine.
  2. To eliminate foaming in the tank.
  3. To prevent pressure build up in the tank.
  1. A combination of atmospheric conditions which will reduce performance is:
  1. Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
  2. High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density.
  3. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.
  1. One purpose of the dual ignition system is to provide for:
  1. Uniform heat distribution.
  2. Balanced cylinder-head pressure.
  3. Easier starting.
  1. The basic flight manoeuvre which increases the load factor on an aircraft as compared to straight-and-level flight is:
  • Climbing
  • Turning
  • Stalling
  1. In order to spin, an aircraft must be:
  1. Partially stalled with one wing low and the throttle closed.
  2. Placed in a steep diving spiral and throttle closed.
  3. Placed in a steep nose-high pitch attitude with throttle closed.
  1. The phenomenon of ground effect is most likely to result in:
  1. Settling back to the surface abruptly immediately after becoming airborne.
  2. Becoming airborne before reaching recommended take-off speed.
  3. An inability to get airborne even though airspeed in normal.

 

  1. The Principles on which the production of lift are based on:
  1. Boyle’s Law.
  2. Bernoulli’s Theorem.
  3. Charles law.
  1. When considering aerodynamic forces, the effect of size is related to:
  1. Joules law.
  2. Bernoulli’s theorem.
  3. Reynolds number.
  1. The ratio Span² ÷ Area gives:
  1. Aspect ratio.
  2. Lift/Drag ratio.
  3. Fineness ratio.
  1. The dividing line between Laminar flow and Turbulent flow is:
  1. Separation point.
  2. Transition point.
  3. Line of Mean Camber.
  1. The drag obtained in truly vertical flight is called:
  1. Interference drag.
  2. Form drag.
  3. Zero lift drag.
  1. The ideal wing platform in regard to efficiency aerodynamically is:
  • Rectangular
  • Elliptical
  • Delta
  1. The best warning of an impending stall is:
  1. Buffet of the tail surface.
  2. The attitude of the aircraft.
  3. A sharp dropping of the nose.
  1. Factors, which can affect the indicated stalling speed, are:
  1. Wind velocity, weight and density.
  2. Weight, load factor and power.
  3. Aspect ratio, down wash and sweep back.

 

  1. The possibility of a spin developing into a flat spin is greatest with:
  1. A forward centre of gravity.
  2. A small inertia moment.
  3. An aft centre of pressure.
  1. The take-off chart in the manufacturer’s handbook gives take-off distance:
  1. For the worst possible conditions.
  2. For a hard dry runway.
  3. For a soft wet runway.
  1. With a light wind on a runway with an appreciable gradient it is advisable to take-off:
  1. Uphill
  2. Downhill
  3. Either uphill or downhill.
  1. If flaps are used for take-off they are retracted:
  1. A soon as possible after take-off.
  2. Fully, in one movement.
  3. In stages.
  1. A pilot accepting an ATC clearance to follow another aircraft to a landing is responsible for maintaining:
  1. A minimum of 2 minutes separation.
  2. Wake turbulence separation.
  3. A minimum of 2 minutes before landing behind another aircraft.
  1. The wake turbulence vector circulates around each wing tip:
  1. Clockwise as viewed from behind.
  2. Inward, upward and around each wing tip.
  3. Outward, upward and towards the fuselage.
  1. Bernoulli’s theorem states that the following factors added together make a constant:
  1. Pressure energy, Kinetic energy and potential energy.
  2. Density, velocity and temperature.
  3. Pressure, Newtons and Joules.
  1. The difference between Rectified Airspeed and Equivalent Airspeed is:
  1. Position error.
  2. Compressibility
  3. Density error.

 

  1. The effect on the stalling attitude when using flaps or slats is:
  1. That both flaps and slats increase the stalling attitude.
  2. That slats increase the stalling attitude and flaps reduce it.
  3. That flaps increase the stalling attitude and slates reduce it.
  1. Total drag is the sum of:
  1. Form drag and skin friction.
  2. Interference drag, form drag and skin friction.
  3. Profile drag and induced drag.
  1. A unit driven by the engine to produce AC electrical power is called:
  1. A transformer rectifier.
  2. An inverter.
  3. An alternator.
  1. To change AC power to DC power requires:
  1. A transformer rectifier.
  2. A reverse current relay.
  3. An inverter.
  1. If the ammeter is indicating a negative charge rate it could indicate:
  1. An unserviceable generator.
  2. An overload.
  3. Either (a) or (b).
  1. A constant speed drive is used with:
  1. A transformer rectifier.
  2. An alternator.
  3. A generator.
  1. An unusually heavy load on the ammeter could be diagnosed by:
  1. Splitting the load on the busses.
  2. Closing the BTB’s.
  3. Switching off the generators.
  1. Cabin altitude in a pressurised cabin is controlled by:
  1. Controlling the amount of inflowing air.
  2. Controlling both the inflow and outflow of air to the cabin.
  3. Controlling the amount of outflowing air.

 

  1. In a pressurisation system the cooling effect of air entering the cabin is allowed for by:
  1. A water separator.
  2. An outflow valve.
  3. A park valve.
  1. If the maximum differential was reached during the climb in a pressurised aircraft, it could be corrected by:
  1. Increasing the aircraft altitude.
  2. Increasing the cabin altitude.
  3. Closing the outflow valve.
  1. To be able to accept both tension and compression forces requires:
  1. A strut or tube.
  2. A wire.
  3. A hinge.
  1. The indicated speed at which an aircraft will stall varies in proportion to:
  1. The weight of the aircraft.
  2. The square root of the product of weight and load factor.
  3. The density altitude.
  1. On a turbocharged aircraft, the altitude to which the turbocharger can maintain rated engine power is called:
  1. The cut-off altitude.
  2. The maximum cruising level.
  3. The critical altitude.
  1. Centre of pressure is defined as:
  1. The point about which the wing rotates.
  2. The point through which the resulting aerodynamic force acting on the wing can be considered to pass.
  3. A point on the chord of the wing about which the moments remain at a constant value.
  1. If the airspeed of an aircraft is doubled then the power required to overcome parasite and profile drag will:
  1. Be 4 times greater.
  2. Remain unchanged.
  3. Decrease to one half of the original value.

 

  1. The stalling angle is:
  1. Independent of airspeed and load-factor.
  2. Reached when the angle of incidence becomes so high that separation occurs over a large portion of the upper surface of the aerofoil.
  3. Independent of configuration airspeed and bank angle.
  1. Which is the odd one out?
  1. Split flap.
  2. Plain flap.
  3. Fowler flap.
  1. Stalling angle decreases when:
  1. Leading edge slots are used.
  2. Aspect ratio is increased.
  3. Wing surfaces are dirty.
  1. The stall speed, in level flight of an aircraft is 61 knots. If the aircraft’s gross weight is 3 600 lbs what would be the effect of a 12% overload?
  • Stall speed increases to 68.3 knots.
  • Stall speed increases to 64.6 knots.
  • Stall speed increases to 76.5 knots.
  1. An increase of aircraft weight will:
  1. Glide further in a headwind.
  2. Glide further in a tailwind.
  3. Glide the same distance irrespective of head or tailwind because the glide angle is dependant only on lift to drag ratio.
  1. Lateral balance can:
  1. Be a limiting factor.
  2. Can affect aircraft performance.
  3. Both (a) or (b).
  1. The aircraft nose initially tends to return to the original position after the elevator is pushed forward and released, the aircraft displays:
  1. Negative stability,
  2. Positive static stability
  3. Negative dynamic stability.

 

  1. The firing sequence of a typical six cylinder horizontally opposed piston engine is:
  • 1-4-5-6-3-2.
  • 1-4-5-2-3-6.
  • 1-6-3-2-4-5.
  1. At the absolute ceiling:
  1. The aircraft will be on the verge of stalling.
  2. There will only be one possible cruise speed equal to the maximum rate of climb speed and maximum angle of climb speed.
  3. The maximum climb rate will be reduced to 100 ft per minute or less
  1. The use of counter-rotating propellers has the effect of:
  1. Increasing the nett torque and gyroscopic moment.
  2. Decreasing the nett torque and increasing the nett gyroscopic moment.
  3. Eliminating the torque and gyroscopic moment.
  1. To gain all the advantages associated with counter rotating engines, the engines on a twin engine aircraft should rotate as follows:
  1. Left engine clockwise and right engine anti-clockwise.
  2. Right engine clockwise and left engine anti-clockwise.
  3. It makes no differences so long as the engine rotates in opposite directions.
  1. With the engine off, the manifold pressure gauge will read:
  1. Zero
  2. Ambient atmospheric pressure.
  3. 29.9” Hg.
  1. Imagine you are in an aircraft a FL250 with the pressurisation at maximum differential giving a cabin altitude of 7 000 ft. To avoid bad weather, you climb to FL300. The cabin altitude will then increase to:
  1. An altitude of 12 000 ft.
  2. An altitude just over 12 000 ft.
  3. An altitude under 12 000 ft.
  1. In a piston engine the spark would occur:
  1. At the beginning of the power stroke.
  2. When the piston is at TDC.
  3. Towards the end of the compression stroke.

 

  1. An aircraft in a level turn has a stalling speed of 107 kts at 1.8g. The stalling speed in straight and level flight will be:
  1. 143 kts.
  2. 59 kts.
  3. 80 kts.
  1. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
  1. Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift.
  2. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component.
  3. Compensate for increase in drag.
  1. If kinetic energy is increased in a Venturi tube, there will be a decrease in:
  1. Potential energy.
  2. Energy due to position.
  3. Pressure energy.
  1. Assume an aircraft is certified with a maximum gross weight of 2 500 lbs and a load factor of 3.8. If this aircraft were loaded to a gross weight of 2 650 lbs and flown in turbulence creating a 3.8 load factor, what air load would be imposed upon its structure?
  1. 2 650 lbs and this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight.
  2. 570 lbs above maximum possible, this aircraft should not be flown at this gross weight.
  3. 150 lbs above maximum possible and this aircraft should not be flown at this gross weight.
  1. If, during a level turn, the rate of turn is kept constant, an increase in airspeed will result in:
  1. A constant load factor regardless of changes in angle of bank.
  2. A need to decrease the angle of bank to maintain the same rate of turn.
  3. A need to increase the angle of bank to maintain the small rate of turn.
  1. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is increased, the load factor would:
  1. Remain the same.
  2. Vary depending on speed.
  3. Vary depending on weight.
  1. Frost on the surface of the wing means that:
  1. Lift is decreased and drag is decreased.
  2. Lift is increased and drag is decreased.
  3. Lift is decreased and drag is increased.

 

  1. When an aircraft is flying at zero angle of attack, the pressure over the wing top surface would be:
  1. Above atmospheric pressure.
  2. Below atmospheric pressure.
  3. The same as atmospheric pressure.
  1. An aircraft climbs as a result of:
  1. Total reaction and lift.
  2. Excess thrust.
  3. Excess lift.
  1. When an aircraft climbs at a constant airspeed and constant power:
  1. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
  2. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is equal to weight.
  3. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is less than weight.
  1. The maximum load factor for an aircraft is +4.4G units. The maximum bank angle which could be made during a level turn without exceeding this load factor is approximately:
  1. 67°
  2. 77°
  3. 87°
  1. In a co-ordinated turn at a constant altitude, it is true to say that:
  1. For any specific bank angle and airspeed, the lighter the aircraft is, the faster the rate and the smaller the radius of the turn.
  2. For a specific bank angle and airspeed, the rate and radius of the turn will not vary.
  3. The faster the TAS, the faster the rate and the larger the radius of turn, regardless of the bank angle.
  1. The reason for the variation in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it:
  1. Permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruise.
  2. Prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruise.
  3. Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruise.

 

  1. Propeller thrust is the result of the:
  1. Angle of incidence of the blade.
  2. Shape and angle of attack of the blade.
  3. Decreased pressure on the flat side of the blade and increased pressure on the curved side.
  1. When exhaust odours are detected in the cockpit, the pilot should:
  1. Shut down the engines and land immediately.
  2. Shut off the cabin heater and close all engine compartment openings.
  3. Open all cabin vents including passages to the engine compartment.
  1. At sea level full power of a supercharged engine produces a manifold pressure of approximately 30” Hg. At 10 000 ft, without a change in the position of the engine controls, the manifold pressure gauge will indicate approximately:
  1. 15” Hg.
  2. 20” Hg.
  3. 30” Hg.
  1. At sea level, an unsupercharged engine fitted with a constant-speed propeller develops 260 HP at 2625 RPM and 29” Hg. The expected full power manifold pressure reading at an airport 5 000 ft AMSL would be:
  1. Less than 2 625 RPM and 29” Hg.
  2. 2 625 RPM and less than 29” Hg.
  3. Higher than 2 625 RPM and more than 29” Hg.
  1. Reciprocating engines, for cooling, depend mainly on:
  1. A properly functioning thermostat.
  2. The circulation of lubricating oil.
  3. A lean air/fuel mixture.
  1. If the fuel/air is not adjusted while climbing, the engine performance will be affected because of:
  1. A decrease in air mass with approximately the same fuel amount entering the carburettor.
  2. A decrease in the amount of fuel and a decrease in the volume of air entering the carburettor.
  3. A constant volume of air and an increase in fuel.
  1. In the glide, the use of flaps will:
  1. Extend the glide and more ground distance will be covered.
  2. Lower the lift/drag ratio and steepen the glide.
  3. Increase the lift/drag ratio and flatten the glide.

Technical General Questions (Answers)

399 C
400 A
401 C
402 C
403 B
404 A
405 A
406 B
407 B
408 B
409 C
410 A
411 C
412 A
413 A
414 A
415 A
416 C
417 C
418 B
419 C
420 A
421 B
422 B
423 B
424 C
425 C
426 C
427 B
428 A
429 A
430 B 478 C 526 C
431 B 479 C 527 A
432 C 480 A 528 A
433 C 481 B 529 A
434 C 482 C 530 B
435 C 483 B 531 B
436 A 484 A 532 B
437 A 485 C 533 A
438 B 486 B 534 A
439 B 487 C 535 A
440 B 488 A 536 C
441 C 489 A 537 A
442 B 490 C 538 B
443 B 491 C 539 A
444 B 492 A 540 B
445 B 493 C 541 B
446 A 494 A 542 B
447 A 495 B 543 C
448 A 496 C 544 A
449 A 497 B 545 B
450 B 498 C 546 B
451 C 499 A 547 C
452 B 500 C 548 A
453 B 501 A 549 A
454 C 502 A 550 B
455 B 503 C 551 C
456 B 504 C 552 B
457 A 505 B 553 C
458 B 506 B 554 B
459 C 507 B 555 B
460 C 508 C 556 A
461 A 509 C 557 A
462 C 510 C 558 A
463 C 511 C 559 A
464 B 512 A 560 A
465 C 513 C 561 C
466 C 514 C 562 C
467 C 515 C 563 B
468 C 516 B 564 C
469 B 517 A 565 A
470 C 518 B 566 C
471 C 519 B 567 A
472 B 520 C 568 A
473 A 521 C 569 A
474 B 522 C 570 B
475 A 523 A 571 B
476 C 524 C 572 A
477 A 525 C 573 B
574 C 622 A 670 B
575 C 623 C 671 B
576 A 624 A 672 A
577 B 625 C 673 C
578 C 626 C 674 A
579 C 627 B 675 C
580 A 628 A 676 B
581 C 629 A 677 C
582 A 630 C 678 A
583 B 631 C 679 B
584 B 632 B 680 A
585 C 633 C 681 C
586 B 634 C 682 C
587 C 635 B 683 B
588 C 636 B 684 B
589 A 637 A 685 B
590 C 638 A 686 C
591 A 639 A 687 A
592 C 640 C 688 A
593 B 641 A 689 A
594 C 642 B 690 C
595 C 643 A 691 C
596 A 644 A 692 B
597 C 645 B 693 B
598 A 646 A 694 C
599 A 647 C 695 B
600 A 648 B 696 A
601 B 649 B 697 C
602 A 650 C 698 A
603 A 651 A 699 C
604 C 652 A 700 B
605 A 653 C 701 B
606 B 654 A 702 B
607 B 655 B 703 A
608 C 656 A 704 C
609 B 657 B 705 C
610 B 658 A 706 B
611 A 659 B 707 A
612 B 660 A 708 A
613 B 661 A 709 A
614 B 662 A 710 B
615 A 663 B 711 A
616 C 664 C 712 C
617 A 665 A 713 C
618 B 666 B 714 A
619 C 667 C 715 B
620 B 668 A 716 C
621 A 669 B 717 C
718 C 744 C 770 A
719 A 745 A 771 C
720 C 746 B 772 C
721 A 747 B 773 B
722 C 748 C 774 C
723 A 749 C 775 C
724 B 750 A 776 C
725 C 751 C 777 A
726 C 752 B 778 C
727 A 753 A 779 B
728 B 754 C 780 C
729 A 755 A 781 A
730 B 756 B 782 C
731 B 757 A 783 B
732 C 758 B 784 B
733 A 759 C 785 C
734 B 760 B 786 B
735 C 761 A 787 B
736 B 762 A 788 C
737 A 763 B 789 B
738 B 764 B 790 B
739 C 765 B 791 B
740 B 766 B 792 B
741 B 767 C 793 B
742 C 768 B 794 A
743 B 769 B 795 B
Technical general questions

Arunaksha Nandy

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


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